Study guides · Stuff Every Drone Pilot Should Know
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Stuff Every Drone Pilot Should Know: Training Guide
Free ground school for the FAA Remote Pilot knowledge test (UAG): operating rules, airspace and LAANC, charts, weather, loading, Remote ID, night and over-people flights, and decision making.
Who this is for: This course is for anyone who wants to fly a drone under 14 CFR Part 107, which covers most work done for pay or for a business, and for anyone who wants the certificate for its own sake. The remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating lets you fly small unmanned aircraft (under 55 pounds) under the Part 107 rules. It needs no medical exam, no flight test and no flying hours. You pass one 60-question knowledge test, or, if you already hold a Part 61 pilot certificate, you finish free online training. You then keep the certificate current with free online recurrent training every 24 calendar months. The course follows the FAA Remote Pilot Small UAS Airman Certification Standards.
Study aid, not authority. This is not an FAA-approved course, an instructor endorsement, a certificate, or a substitute for current regulations and official FAA publications.
Adapted from Open Checklists. Source revision 4e33e7b, checked 2026-10-25.
Course facts
- Minimum age
- 16 to hold the certificate 14 CFR 107.61(a)
- Knowledge test
- UAG: 60 questions, 2 hours, 70 percent to pass FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix
- Retest wait
- 14 calendar days after a failure, no endorsement 14 CFR 107.71
- Medical certificate
- None. You must not know of a condition that would interfere with safe operation 14 CFR 107.61(c)
- Staying current
- Free online recurrent training within each 24 calendar months 14 CFR 107.65
- Aircraft weight
- Less than 55 pounds on takeoff, including everything on board 14 CFR 107.3
- Flight limits
- 400 feet AGL, 87 knots groundspeed, 3 statute miles, 500 feet below and 2,000 feet from clouds 14 CFR 107.51
- Aircraft registration
- $5 per aircraft, valid 3 years, and Remote ID rules apply FAA Register Your Drone
Tests and standards
UAG knowledge test
60 questions · 120 minutes · 70% passing score
- The test is called Unmanned Aircraft General, Small (UAG). Every question is multiple choice with one correct answer.
- You must be at least 14 to sit for the test and at least 16 to hold the certificate. The date of birth on your ID must show you meet the age rule before the test report expires.
- No instructor endorsement is needed to take the test or to retake it. After a failure you wait 14 calendar days and bring the failed test report.
- Get an FAA Tracking Number (FTN) by creating an IACRA account before you book. Then schedule the test with an FAA-approved testing center and arrange payment with the center.
- Bring government-issued photo identification that shows your photo, signature, date of birth and permanent mailing address. If the address is a post office box, also bring a residential address.
- The testing center gives you a supplement book with the charts and figures the questions use. Written notes are not allowed.
- Your test report lists the codes of the questions you missed. Apply in IACRA soon after you pass, because the report has an expiration date.
Official references: FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix; Remote Pilot Small UAS Airman Certification Standards, Appendix 1; 14 CFR 107.67 Knowledge tests: general procedures and passing grades; FAA: Become a Certificated Remote Pilot
Requirements
- Be at least 16 years old. 14 CFR 107.61(a)
- Be able to read, speak, write and understand English. The FAA may add limits to the certificate if a medical reason keeps you from meeting one of these. 14 CFR 107.61(b)
- Not know, or have reason to know, of a physical or mental condition that would interfere with the safe operation of a small UAS. 14 CFR 107.61(c)
- Show aeronautical knowledge by passing the initial knowledge test (UAG), or, if you hold a Part 61 pilot certificate (not a student certificate) and a current flight review, by completing the FAA's Part 107 initial training. 14 CFR 107.61(d)
- Pass the TSA security background check that the FAA runs as part of processing your application. FAA: Become a Certificated Remote Pilot
- Do not have a drug or alcohol offense, or a refusal of an alcohol test, that gives the FAA grounds to deny the application. 14 CFR 107.57
- Register each aircraft you fly under Part 107 and make sure it meets the Remote ID rule. 14 CFR 107.13
Study plan
- Week 1: Learn the certificate process and the rules that make up the largest share of the test. Read the Part 107 operating rules slowly, then the over-people, night and Remote ID rules. Take the first practice test at the end of the week and note every missed topic.
Lessons: The Remote Pilot Certificate, the Test and Staying Current, Operating Rules: Part 107 Subpart B, Operations Over People and at Night, Aircraft Registration and Remote ID (14 CFR Part 89) - Week 2: Airspace, charts and airports. Practice reading chart pieces every day: classes, floors and ceilings, airports, obstacles and latitude and longitude. Learn the airport lights, markings and radio calls.
Lessons: Airspace, Authorizations and Flight Restrictions, Reading a Sectional Chart, Radio Communication and Airport Operations - Week 3: Weather, loading and emergencies. Decode five METARs and TAFs a day. Work the load factor and density altitude questions. Learn battery safety and the preflight checklist.
Lessons: Weather Sources and Weather Effects, Loading and Performance, Emergency Procedures, Batteries and Maintenance - Week 4: Decision making and human factors, then review. Take two full practice tests, read the sample questions from the FAA, and re-read the modules for every area you missed. Book the real test for the end of the week.
Lessons: Decision Making, Crew Resource Management and Human Factors
Lesson 1 of 11
The Remote Pilot Certificate, the Test and Staying Current
Who can hold the certificate, how the 60-question UAG test works, how to apply, and how to keep your privileges valid with recurrent training.
What you will learn
- Say who needs a remote pilot certificate and who can hold one.
- Describe the Unmanned Aircraft General (UAG) test: length, time limit, passing score and topic mix.
- List the steps from a test appointment to the plastic card in your wallet.
- Explain the shortcut for pilots who already hold a Part 61 certificate.
- Explain the 24 calendar month rule and the free recurrent training.
- Say what you must carry, show and report after you are certificated.
What the certificate is and who needs it
Part 107 is the rule book for civil small unmanned aircraft: aircraft that weigh less than 55 pounds on takeoff, counting everything on board. The pilot credential is called a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating.
A flight that is purely for fun can follow the recreational exception instead. Flights that are not purely recreational, which includes most work done for pay or for a business, fall under Part 107.
The certificate has no medical exam, no flight test and no minimum flight hours. It proves one thing: you passed an FAA knowledge test, or you finished the FAA training that replaces it.
A person without a certificate may touch the controls only while a certificated remote pilot in command directly supervises and can take over at once.
Eligibility rules
You must be at least 16 years old to hold the certificate. You must read, speak, write and understand English. The FAA can add limits to the certificate if a medical reason keeps you from meeting one of those language skills.
You must not know of any physical or mental condition that would interfere with safe operation of a small UAS. There is no medical certificate, so this is a promise you keep honestly before every flight.
A conviction for a drug law violation can lead to denial of an application for up to 1 year, or to suspension or revocation of a certificate. So can breaking the alcohol and drug flight rules, and so can refusing a required alcohol test.
Cheating on a knowledge test bans you from taking any FAA test or applying for any FAA certificate for 1 year, and it can cost you a certificate you already hold.
The knowledge test (UAG)
The test is called Unmanned Aircraft General, Small, or UAG. It has 60 multiple-choice questions, gives you 2 hours, and needs a score of 70 percent, which is 42 correct answers. Each question has one right answer.
You can sit for the test at age 14, but the certificate itself needs age 16. Your photo ID must show your photo, signature, date of birth and permanent mailing address. The date of birth must show you will meet the age rule before the test report expires.
No instructor endorsement is needed to take the test, and none is needed to retake it. After a failure you wait 14 calendar days and show the failed test report at the testing center.
The test centers hand you a supplement book with the charts and figures that some questions refer to. You may not bring written notes. The score report lists the ACS codes of the questions you missed, so you can aim your review.
The questions follow the Remote Pilot ACS. Its approximate weights are: regulations 15 to 25 percent, airspace 15 to 25 percent, weather 11 to 16 percent, loading and performance 7 to 11 percent, and operations 35 to 45 percent.
From test appointment to card
Step 1: Create an account in IACRA, the FAA's online application system. That gives you an FAA Tracking Number (FTN). Do this before you register for the test.
Step 2: Schedule the UAG at an FAA-approved testing center and bring your photo ID. Step 3: Pass the test.
Step 4: In IACRA, start a new application for a Remote Pilot certificate (FAA Form 8710-13) and enter the 17-digit exam ID from your test report. The exam can take up to 48 hours to show up.
Step 5: The FAA's partner agency, TSA, completes a security background check. You then receive an email with instructions for printing a temporary certificate. A temporary certificate is good for up to 120 calendar days.
Step 6: The permanent plastic card arrives by mail after the FAA finishes its processing.
The shortcut for Part 61 pilots
A person who holds a pilot certificate under Part 61, other than a student certificate, and who has a current flight review under 14 CFR 61.56, can skip the test. Instead the pilot completes the free online course Part 107 Small UAS Initial (ALC-451) on FAASafety.gov.
That training covers eight areas: Part 107 privileges and rules, weather effects on performance, loading, emergency procedures, crew resource management, performance, maintenance and preflight inspection, and night operations.
The pilot then fills out the application in IACRA and meets in person with a certifying official to prove identity. The official can be an FAA Flight Standards office, a designated pilot examiner, an airman certification representative or a certificated flight instructor. A flight instructor cannot issue a temporary certificate.
Staying current: 24 calendar months
You may not use the privileges of a remote pilot in command unless, within the previous 24 calendar months, you passed the initial test or completed recurrent training. A Part 61 pilot with a current flight review can use the Part 61 training course for the same purpose.
Count calendar months, not days. Example from the FAA's advisory circular: a pilot who passes the test on September 13 must finish recurrent training by the end of September, 24 months later.
Recurrent training today is a free online course on FAASafety.gov. Every certificate holder can take Part 107 Small UAS Recurrent (ALC-677). Part 107 pilots who also hold a Part 61 certificate with a current flight review can take ALC-515 instead.
The old recurrent knowledge test, UGR, was retired on April 6, 2021. You cannot take a test for recency anymore. The recency rule limits your privileges. If you let it lapse, finish the training before you act as pilot in command again.
Carry it, show it, keep it up to date
When you fly, you must have your remote pilot certificate and a photo ID in your physical possession and easy to reach. You must show them when asked by the FAA, the NTSB, TSA or any federal, state or local law enforcement officer.
The pilot in command, the owner or the person at the controls must also give the FAA, on request, any record or report that the rules require. They must allow the FAA to inspect the aircraft, the pilot and the visual observer.
If you move, you have 30 days to tell the FAA your new permanent mailing address. After 30 days you may not use the certificate's privileges until you report the change. To change your name you send the certificate and proof such as a marriage license or court order.
You can give up your certificate voluntarily. If you do, you must meet the eligibility and testing rules again to get a new one.
Numbers to remember
| Item | Value | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Minimum age to hold the certificate | 16 | 14 CFR 107.61(a) |
| Minimum age to take the UAG test | 14 | FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix |
| UAG questions | 60 | FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix |
| UAG time limit | 2 hours | FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix |
| Passing score | 70 percent (42 of 60) | FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix; Remote Pilot ACS Appendix 1 |
| Wait before a retest | 14 calendar days | 14 CFR 107.71 |
| Temporary certificate | up to 120 calendar days | 14 CFR 107.64(a) |
| Knowledge recency | 24 calendar months | 14 CFR 107.65 |
| Time to report a new address | 30 days | 14 CFR 107.77(c) |
| Ban for cheating on a knowledge test | 1 year | 14 CFR 107.69(b) |
Knowledge check
Choose an answer before reading the answer key.
What is the minimum age to hold a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating?
- 14
- 16
- 18
A pilot passes the UAG test on September 13, 2025. By what date must the pilot finish recurrent training to keep acting as pilot in command?
- September 13, 2027
- September 30, 2027
- December 31, 2027
A private pilot with a current flight review wants a remote pilot certificate. Which path fits?
- Pass the UAG test, because no other path exists.
- Finish the free online Part 107 initial training, apply in IACRA and prove identity in person.
- Pass a practical flight test with a designated pilot examiner.
A candidate fails the UAG test. What must the candidate do before retaking it?
- Get an instructor endorsement.
- Wait 14 calendar days and show the failed test report.
- Wait 30 days and finish a remedial course.
Which item must a remote pilot have in physical possession and easy to reach while flying under Part 107?
- A second-class medical certificate
- The remote pilot certificate and photo identification
- A copy of the airspace authorization for every airport in the state
Answer key
- B. 16. Section 107.61(a) sets 16 as the minimum age for the certificate. Age 14 is only the minimum to sit for the knowledge test. 14 CFR 107.61(a)
- B. September 30, 2027. The 24 months are calendar months, so the window runs to the end of the 24th month after the test, which is September 30, 2027. 14 CFR 107.65; AC 107-2A paragraph 6.7.2
- B. Finish the free online Part 107 initial training, apply in IACRA and prove identity in person.. Section 107.61(d)(2) lets a Part 61 pilot with a current flight review complete training instead of the test. Part 107 has no practical test. 14 CFR 107.61(d)(2); 107.63(a)(2)
- B. Wait 14 calendar days and show the failed test report.. Section 107.71 sets a 14 calendar day wait. The FAA matrix says no endorsement or other written authorization is needed to retest. 14 CFR 107.71; FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix
- B. The remote pilot certificate and photo identification. Section 107.7(a)(1) requires the certificate and identification to be in your possession and readily accessible whenever you use the certificate's privileges. 14 CFR 107.7(a)(1)
Official reading
- 14 CFR 107.61 Eligibility
- 14 CFR 107.65 Aeronautical knowledge recency
- FAA: Become a Certificated Remote Pilot
- FAA Airman Knowledge Testing Matrix (UAG is on the Unmanned Aircraft Systems page)
- Remote Pilot Small UAS Airman Certification Standards, Appendix 1
- AC 107-2A Chapter 6: Remote Pilot Certification
Lesson 2 of 11
Operating Rules: Part 107 Subpart B
The rules every flight must follow: who is in charge, safe condition, sight and visual observers, right of way, the four flight limits, accident reports, emergencies and waivers.
What you will learn
- Explain the authority and duties of the remote pilot in command.
- State the visual line of sight rule and the rules for visual observers.
- Recall the groundspeed, altitude, visibility and cloud clearance limits.
- Apply the rules on alcohol, drugs, hazardous operations, moving vehicles and hazardous material.
- Decide when an accident must be reported, and what the in-flight emergency rule allows.
- Name the rules that a waiver can change, and the rules that it cannot.
The remote pilot in command
A remote pilot in command, written remote PIC, must be named before or during the flight. The remote PIC is directly responsible for the operation and has the final say about it.
The remote PIC must make sure the aircraft will not be an undue hazard to people, other aircraft or property if control is lost for any reason. The remote PIC must also keep the operation within every applicable rule and must be able to direct the aircraft to stay in compliance.
Someone else may fly the controls only if that person is a certificated remote pilot, or is directly supervised by a remote PIC who can take over immediately. The remote PIC stays responsible either way.
Safe condition, health, alcohol and drugs
Before each flight the remote PIC checks the whole system to decide whether it is in a condition for safe operation. If the pilot learns or has reason to know that it is no longer safe during a flight, the flight must not continue.
The preflight actions in section 107.49 are: assess the weather, the airspace and flight restrictions, the people and property on the ground, and other ground hazards. Brief everyone who helps with the flight. Check the control links. Make sure there is enough power for the planned flight time. Make sure any attached object is secure and does not hurt controllability.
Nobody may be pilot, person at the controls, visual observer or direct participant while knowing of a physical or mental condition that would interfere with safe operation.
The pilot, the person at the controls and the visual observer must follow the alcohol and drug rules of 14 CFR 91.17 and 91.19: no flying within 8 hours of drinking alcohol, none while under the influence, none with an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or more, and none while using a drug that affects your faculties.
Hazardous operations, moving vehicles and dangerous goods
You may not operate in a careless or reckless way that endangers the life or property of another. You may not let an object fall from the aircraft in a way that creates an undue hazard to people or property.
You may not operate from a moving aircraft. You may operate from a moving land or water vehicle only over a sparsely populated area, and only if the aircraft is not carrying another person's property for pay or hire.
A small unmanned aircraft may not carry hazardous material, as defined in 49 CFR 171.8.
Seeing the aircraft: visual line of sight and visual observers
With vision that is unaided except for glasses or contact lenses, the remote PIC and the person at the controls must be able to see the aircraft for the entire flight. They need to know its location, attitude, altitude and direction. They must also watch the airspace for other traffic or hazards and make sure the aircraft does not endanger anyone.
Binoculars may be used only for a moment to help awareness. First-person-view (FPV) goggles or a camera screen do not satisfy this rule.
A visual observer (VO) is optional. If you use one, the VO must be able to see the aircraft well enough to meet the rule. The remote PIC, the person at the controls and the VO must stay in effective communication at all times, and the three of them must scan for hazards and keep track of the aircraft by direct looking.
One person may not fly, or act as remote PIC or VO for, more than one unmanned aircraft at the same time.
Right of way and airports
A small unmanned aircraft must give way to all other aircraft, airborne vehicles, and launch and reentry vehicles. Giving way means you do not pass over, under or ahead of the other aircraft unless you stay well clear. You may not fly so close to another aircraft that you create a collision hazard.
You may not fly in a way that interferes with the operations and traffic patterns at an airport, heliport or seaplane base. The FAA's example: a drone hovering 200 feet above a runway can make a manned aircraft delay its takeoff or landing, and that already counts as interference even if no collision is possible.
The four flight limits
Groundspeed: no more than 87 knots, which is 100 miles per hour. Altitude: no higher than 400 feet above ground level. The exception: when you are within a 400-foot radius of a structure, you may fly up to 400 feet above that structure's highest point.
Flight visibility: at least 3 statute miles, measured from the control station. Flight visibility is the average slant distance at which you can see and identify prominent unlighted objects by day, or prominent lighted objects at night.
Distance from clouds: at least 500 feet below a cloud and at least 2,000 feet horizontally from it. Because of the 500-foot rule, a cloud layer at 600 feet above the ground leaves you only 100 feet to fly in.
Accident reports, inspections and in-flight emergencies
No later than 10 calendar days after an operation, the remote PIC must report to the FAA if the flight involved serious injury to any person, or loss of consciousness, or damage to property other than the drone. Property damage is reportable unless the repair cost, or the fair market value in a total loss, is $500 or less.
On request, you must show your certificate and identification, and let the FAA, the NTSB, law enforcement or TSA inspect the system and the people involved, as described in section 107.7.
In an in-flight emergency that needs immediate action, the remote PIC may deviate from any Part 107 rule, but only as far as needed to handle the emergency. The pilot sends a written report of the deviation only if the FAA asks for one.
Waivers
A certificate of waiver lets you depart from certain rules if you show the FAA that you can still fly safely. You follow the conditions written in the waiver. Part 107 lists which rules can be waived. Rules that are not on the list cannot be waived.
Waivable rules (section 107.205): operation from a moving vehicle or aircraft (but no waiver to carry another person's property for pay or hire), anti-collision lighting at night and twilight, visual line of sight (same limit on carrying property for pay or hire), visual observers, more than one aircraft, yielding right of way, operation over people, operation in certain airspace, the four flight limits, and operations over moving vehicles.
Rules such as the hazardous operation rule (107.23) and the alcohol and drug rule (107.27) are not on the list, so no waiver can change them.
The FAA now takes Part 107 waiver applications through the Aviation Safety Hub. Airspace authorization requests still go through FAADroneZone. Older study sources and some test items may say DroneZone for both.
Numbers to remember
| Item | Value | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Maximum groundspeed | 87 knots (100 mph) | 14 CFR 107.51(a) |
| Maximum altitude | 400 feet AGL (or 400 feet above a structure within a 400-foot radius) | 14 CFR 107.51(b) |
| Minimum flight visibility | 3 statute miles, from the control station | 14 CFR 107.51(c) |
| Distance from clouds | 500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontally | 14 CFR 107.51(d) |
| Aircraft weight limit for Part 107 | less than 55 pounds on takeoff | 14 CFR 107.3 |
| Accident report deadline | 10 calendar days | 14 CFR 107.9 |
| Property damage threshold for a report | more than $500 | 14 CFR 107.9(b) |
| Hours between alcohol and flying | 8 hours | 14 CFR 91.17(a)(1) |
| Alcohol concentration limit | 0.04 or more is prohibited | 14 CFR 91.17(a)(4) |
| Aircraft one person may operate at once | one | 14 CFR 107.35 |
Knowledge check
Choose an answer before reading the answer key.
A remote pilot inspects a 600-foot tower. Within a 400-foot radius of the tower, what is the highest the aircraft may fly without a waiver?
- 400 feet AGL
- 1,000 feet AGL
- 400 feet MSL
Where is the 3 statute mile minimum flight visibility measured?
- From the aircraft
- From the control station
- From the nearest airport
A remote pilot flies with FPV goggles and has no visual observer. Which statement is correct?
- The goggles satisfy the line of sight rule if the video is clear.
- The goggles do not satisfy the rule, so the remote PIC or person at the controls must still see the aircraft directly, or a visual observer must.
- The goggles satisfy the rule at night only.
A drone hits a parked car and the repair costs $1,200. Nobody is hurt. What must the remote PIC do?
- Nothing, because nobody was injured.
- Report to the FAA no later than 10 calendar days after the operation.
- Report to the FAA within 24 hours.
Which statement about flying from a moving land vehicle is correct?
- It is never allowed.
- It is allowed over a sparsely populated area when the drone is not carrying another person's property for pay or hire.
- It is allowed anywhere if the pilot is not the driver.
Answer key
- B. 1,000 feet AGL. Inside a 400-foot radius of a structure, the limit is 400 feet above the structure's uppermost limit. 600 plus 400 is 1,000 feet AGL. 14 CFR 107.51(b)
- B. From the control station. Section 107.51(c) says flight visibility is observed from the location of the control station. 14 CFR 107.51(c)
- B. The goggles do not satisfy the rule, so the remote PIC or person at the controls must still see the aircraft directly, or a visual observer must.. Unaided vision is required. FPV devices may be used but do not meet the line of sight requirement. 14 CFR 107.31; AC 107-2A paragraph 5.9.1
- B. Report to the FAA no later than 10 calendar days after the operation.. Property damage other than to the drone is reportable when repair cost or value lost is more than $500, and the report is due within 10 calendar days. 14 CFR 107.9(b)
- B. It is allowed over a sparsely populated area when the drone is not carrying another person's property for pay or hire.. Section 107.25 allows moving land or water vehicle operations only over a sparsely populated area and only without carrying another person's property for compensation or hire. Operation from a moving aircraft is prohibited. 14 CFR 107.25
Official reading
Lesson 3 of 11
Airspace, Authorizations and Flight Restrictions
The classes of airspace, which ones need permission, how LAANC and FAADroneZone work, special use airspace, temporary flight restrictions and NOTAMs.
What you will learn
- Name the classes of airspace and say where each one needs ATC authorization for a drone.
- Describe the shape and floor and ceiling of Class B, C and D airspace in general terms.
- Tell prohibited, restricted, warning, military operations and alert areas apart, and say which ones need permission.
- Explain LAANC, UAS Facility Maps, further coordination and FAADroneZone.
- Find and read temporary flight restrictions and NOTAMs before a flight.
Controlled and uncontrolled airspace
Air traffic control (ATC) provides service in controlled airspace. That means Class A, B, C, D and E. Class G is uncontrolled. Class A starts at 18,000 feet MSL, far above anything a drone may reach.
The Part 107 rule is short: you need prior ATC authorization to operate in Class B, Class C or Class D airspace, or inside the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E airspace that is designated for an airport. Everywhere else you need no airspace authorization, although every other rule still applies.
Remember the distinction: only the surface area of Class E needs authorization. The rest of Class E, and Class G, do not.
Class B, C, D and surface-area Class E
Class B surrounds the nation's busiest airports. In general it runs from the surface up to 10,000 feet MSL. It is built in layers, like an upside-down wedding cake, so the floor changes as you move away from the airport.
Class C surrounds airports with an operating control tower, radar approach control and a certain level of traffic. In general it runs from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation. The usual shape is an inner circle with a 5 nautical mile radius that starts at the surface, and an outer ring out to 10 nautical miles with a floor of about 1,200 feet above the airport.
Class D surrounds airports with an operating control tower, in general from the surface up to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation. Some towers close at night. A part-time Class D area then turns into Class E surface area or into Class G, and the Chart Supplement entry for the airport says which. Check it, or let your LAANC app check it.
Surface-area Class E is controlled airspace that reaches down to the ground around an airport that has weather reporting and radio contact down to the runway but no control tower running at the time. The chart shows it with a dashed magenta line. Extensions that reach out from a surface area to hold instrument approach paths are part of the surface area, so authorization applies there too.
The rest of Class E and Class G
Class E is the controlled airspace that is not A, B, C or D. Unless the chart says otherwise, it starts 1,200 feet above the ground. Shaded edges on the chart show lower floors: a magenta edge marks a floor of 700 feet AGL, and a blue edge marks other floors where controlled airspace meets uncontrolled airspace. Over most of the country, Class E also sits above 14,500 feet MSL.
Class G is the uncontrolled airspace from the ground up to the bottom of the Class E above it. A drone pilot needs no ATC authorization in Class G. Where the Class E floor is 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, a drone that stays at or below 400 feet AGL is in Class G unless it is inside the surface area of an airport.
Special use airspace
Prohibited areas (P- numbers, for example P-40) bar all flight, for security or national welfare. Restricted areas (R- numbers) hold hazards such as artillery and guided missiles. Under section 107.45 you need permission from the using or controlling agency to enter either one.
Warning areas (W- numbers) start 3 nautical miles out from the coast, may lie over domestic or international waters, and hold activity that can hurt aircraft that are not taking part. Military operations areas (MOAs) separate military training from instrument traffic and are named, not numbered. Alert areas (A- numbers) show unusual activity, such as heavy pilot training. Controlled firing areas stop their activity when a spotter sees an aircraft near.
Part 107 does not require a drone pilot to get permission to enter a warning area, MOA or alert area. You still need to find out what is going on there and stay clear of danger. Times and altitudes for special use airspace appear in the chart margins, and in NOTAMs.
Other airspace and restrictions
Temporary flight restrictions (TFRs) protect disaster areas, large events, presidential travel and space operations. Section 107.47 makes you obey 14 CFR 91.137 through 91.145 and 99.7. Those rules cover disaster and hazard areas, Hawaii disaster areas, emergency air traffic rules, VIP movements, space flight operations, air shows and major sporting events, and special security instructions in a defense zone.
Other areas on the chart: military training routes (VR and IR routes, with speeds above 250 knots, usually below 10,000 feet MSL), national security areas, terminal radar service areas, published VFR routes, and parachute jump areas. Sports stadium TFRs can appear on the chart too.
Sectional charts do not show every restriction, so you check NOTAMs and the FAA TFR site for the day of the flight.
Getting authorization: UAS Facility Maps, LAANC and FAADroneZone
UAS Facility Maps show the highest altitudes, in a grid around each airport, where the FAA may approve Part 107 flights without more safety analysis. The maps do not authorize anything by themselves.
LAANC, the Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability, is the fast way to get authorization. You use an app from an FAA-approved UAS Service Supplier. If your request is at or below the grid altitude, you can get an approval in near real time. You can ask up to 90 days ahead. Unless the authorization says otherwise, you do not need to call the tower.
If you need to go above the grid altitude, up to 400 feet, Part 107 pilots can send a further coordination request through LAANC. An air traffic manager reviews it by hand, and requests must be sent at least 72 hours before the flight.
Airports that LAANC does not cover use FAADroneZone. Those requests are reviewed by hand at FAA service centers, and the FAA says to allow up to eight weeks. FAADroneZone requests can be for day or night.
LAANC approves airspace only. You still check NOTAMs, the weather and other restrictions yourself.
Flying near airports without needing authorization
A flight outside Class B, C, D and surface Class E does not need airspace authorization even if an airport is nearby. Section 107.43 still bans any flight that interferes with the traffic pattern or operations of any airport, heliport or seaplane base.
Stay out of traffic patterns and approach corridors. If you must fly at a small airport, keep your aircraft where a manned aircraft pilot will never have to change course to avoid it.
The FAA B4UFLY app and a current chart help you see the airspace for a site. The pilot in command must also read the Chart Supplement entry for nearby airports.
NOTAMs and TFR checks before every flight
A NOTAM, Notice to Airmen, is urgent information that is temporary or too new for a chart. Examples: air shows, parachute jumps, rocket launches, flights by important people, unlit towers, and flocks of birds (a BIRDTAM).
A TFR notice begins with the words FLIGHT RESTRICTIONS and gives the place, the time period, the area in statute miles and the altitudes. The FAA says remote pilots must check NOTAMs before each flight. The usual sources are Flight Service (1800wxbrief.com) and the FAA's TFR website, tfr.faa.gov.
Section 107.49(a) already requires you to assess the local airspace and any flight restrictions before flying, so a missed TFR is the pilot's mistake, not the app's.
Numbers to remember
| Item | Value | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Class A starts | 18,000 feet MSL | 14 CFR part 71 |
| Class B, in general | surface to 10,000 feet MSL | AIM 3-2-3; Remote Pilot Study Guide |
| Class C, in general | surface to 4,000 feet above the airport; 5 nm inner ring, 10 nm outer ring from about 1,200 feet | AIM 3-2-4; Remote Pilot Study Guide |
| Class D, in general | surface to 2,500 feet above the airport | AIM 3-2-5; Remote Pilot Study Guide |
| Class E floor, unless the chart shows another | 1,200 feet AGL (charted lower floors: 700 feet AGL, magenta edge) | AIM 3-2-6; Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide |
| LAANC request lead time | up to 90 days ahead | FAA Part 107 airspace authorizations page |
| Further coordination request lead time | at least 72 hours | FAA Part 107 airspace authorizations page |
| FAADroneZone processing | up to 8 weeks | FAA Part 107 airspace authorizations page |
| Maximum LAANC further coordination altitude | 400 feet AGL | FAA LAANC page |
| Class E above | 14,500 feet MSL up to (not including) 18,000 feet MSL | AIM 3-2-6 |
Knowledge check
Choose an answer before reading the answer key.
Under Part 107, in which airspace does a drone pilot need prior ATC authorization?
- Class B, Class C, Class D and surface-area Class E
- Any Class E airspace
- Class G within 5 miles of an airport
A remote pilot wants to fly at a spot where the UAS Facility Map shows 100 feet, but the job needs 300 feet. Which request fits, assuming the airport uses LAANC?
- A near real-time LAANC request for 300 feet
- A further coordination request, sent at least 72 hours ahead
- No request, because 300 feet is below 400 feet
Which special use airspace requires permission from the using or controlling agency under Part 107?
- Military operations areas
- Prohibited and restricted areas
- Alert areas
A TFR for a sporting event covers your job site. Your company sponsors a team. May you fly?
- Yes, because the company is a sponsor.
- Yes, if you tell everyone at the event.
- No, the TFR applies to all aircraft unless you have permission such as a waiver or authorization.
Which Class C airspace statement is correct in general?
- It runs from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.
- It runs from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an inner circle and a shelf.
- It starts at 700 feet AGL.
Answer key
- A. Class B, Class C, Class D and surface-area Class E. Section 107.41 names Class B, C and D and the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E designated for an airport. Class G and other Class E need no authorization. 14 CFR 107.41
- B. A further coordination request, sent at least 72 hours ahead. Altitudes above the grid value, up to 400 feet, need a manually reviewed further coordination request. The FAA asks for it at least 72 hours before the flight. FAA Part 107 airspace authorizations page
- B. Prohibited and restricted areas. Section 107.45 mentions only prohibited and restricted areas. You still use caution in MOAs and alert areas. 14 CFR 107.45
- C. No, the TFR applies to all aircraft unless you have permission such as a waiver or authorization.. Section 107.47 requires you to obey the flight restriction rules, including 91.145. A sponsor role does not change that. 14 CFR 107.47; 14 CFR 91.145
- B. It runs from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an inner circle and a shelf.. The usual Class C layout is an inner circle of 5 nautical miles from the surface and an outer shelf out to 10 nautical miles, topping out at 4,000 feet above the airport. AIM 3-2-4
Official reading
Lesson 4 of 11
Reading a Sectional Chart
How to read altitudes, airspace lines, airports, obstacles, maximum elevation figures and coordinates on the VFR sectional chart that the test supplement uses.
What you will learn
- Tell MSL altitudes from AGL altitudes on a chart and convert between them.
- Identify Class B, C, D and E boundaries by their line style and color.
- Read an airport data block and know what blue and magenta airports mean.
- Read obstacle labels and the maximum elevation figure (MEF).
- Find a place on the chart from latitude and longitude given in decimal degrees.
What a sectional chart is
A sectional is the standard VFR chart for pilots who fly by sight. Its scale is 1:500,000, which is large enough to read easily and wide enough to cover a good part of a state. Each chart is named after a major city in its area.
The test gives you chart pieces in a supplement book (FAA-CT-8080-2H). Each question points to a figure and an area on it, for example Figure 21, area 3. You find the area, then read the symbols.
In real life, use a current chart or an app that shows current airspace. Old charts miss new airspace, new obstacles and changed frequencies.
Altitudes: MSL, AGL and the missing zeros
Altitudes on the chart are measured above mean sea level (MSL) unless the label says AGL. Airspace labels leave off the last two zeros: a label of 40 means 4,000 feet MSL, and 12 means 1,200 feet MSL.
Class B and Class C labels are written as a fraction. The top number is the ceiling and the bottom number is the floor, both in hundreds of feet MSL. Class B figures are blue, and Class C figures are magenta. A minus sign in front of a Class D ceiling means from the surface up to but not including that altitude.
To find a height above the ground, subtract the ground elevation from the MSL altitude. Example: a Class C shelf floor of 1,200 feet MSL over ground that is 500 feet MSL is 700 feet above the ground.
Airspace lines you must recognize
Class B is a solid blue line. Class C is a solid magenta line. Class D is a dashed blue line. Class E surface area is a dashed magenta line.
Other Class E edges are shown with a soft shaded band, called a vignette. A magenta vignette means the controlled airspace floor is 700 feet above the ground. A blue vignette means a different floor where controlled airspace meets uncontrolled Class G.
Boxed notes beside an airport give the approach control frequency that arriving VFR pilots use, and notes say if the Class C or Class D area is not in effect around the clock.
Special use airspace has its own symbols: P and R areas with numbers, W for warning, A for alert, and named MOAs. Military training routes appear as thin lines. Detailed times and altitudes for special use airspace are printed at the edge of the chart.
Airports and their data blocks
Airports with a control tower and their data are printed in blue. All other airports and their data are printed in magenta. Different symbols show airports with hard-surface runways, other airports, heliports and seaplane bases.
The data block gives the airport name, the tower or common traffic advisory frequency, the field elevation in feet MSL, and the length of the longest runway in hundreds of feet. It also says if runway lights burn from dusk to dawn or if you must look up the lighting hours in the Chart Supplement.
A beacon symbol by the airport means a rotating or flashing beacon runs from dusk to dawn. Right-hand traffic pattern information is printed by the airport when a runway uses it.
The Chart Supplement, formerly called the Airport/Facility Directory, is the complete airport listing: hours, frequencies, lighting, parachute jumping and more. The chart tells you where the airport is. The Chart Supplement tells you how it works.
Terrain, obstacles and the maximum elevation figure
The chart shows terrain with contour lines, shaded relief and color tints. Basic contour lines are spaced 500 feet apart. Tight spacing means steep terrain. Color tints run from light green at low elevation to dark brown at high elevation.
Man-made obstacles that rise more than 200 feet above ground level appear as symbols, or more than 299 feet in yellow city areas. Obstacles 1,000 feet AGL or higher use a larger symbol. A number beside the symbol is the top of the obstacle in feet MSL. The height above ground is in parentheses below it. Rays around the symbol show a lit obstacle. The letters UC mean under construction.
Wind turbine blades are not lit. Their lights are on the nacelle, at the hub. Guy wires can extend outward from tall towers, so stay clear of them.
The Maximum Elevation Figure (MEF) is printed in each chart quadrant, the box between lines that fall every 30 minutes of latitude and 30 minutes of longitude. It is the highest known terrain or obstacle in that box, rounded up to the next 100 feet, with the last two digits not printed. An MEF printed as 4 over 7 means 4,700 feet MSL.
Finding a place with latitude and longitude
Latitude lines run east and west and give the distance north of the equator. Longitude lines run north and south and give the distance west of Greenwich in the United States. On a chart, north is up and longitude numbers grow as you move to the left.
Test items often give decimal degrees, such as 46.9 N and 98.6 W. Convert the decimal part to minutes by multiplying by 60: 0.9 times 60 is 54 minutes, and 0.6 times 60 is 36 minutes. So the point is 46 degrees 54 minutes north and 98 degrees 36 minutes west.
Find the latitude line, find the longitude line, and look where they cross. Then read the airspace and symbols at that spot. If the point lies inside a Class C or Class D circle or in the surface area of a Class E airport, you need ATC authorization.
Planning with the chart: a short routine
1. Locate your site. 2. Name the airspace class that covers it, and write down the floor in feet AGL. 3. Look for airports within a few miles, towered or not. 4. Check special use airspace, military routes and TFR symbols. 5. Check the obstacles and the MEF along your route. 6. Open the NOTAMs and weather for the same time.
A phone app is a helpful second look. The chart and the Chart Supplement are what the FAA tests and what you can rely on if the app is wrong or has no signal.
Numbers to remember
| Item | Value | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Sectional chart scale | 1:500,000 | Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide |
| Spacing of basic contour lines | 500 feet | Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide |
| Obstacles charted above | 200 feet AGL (299 feet in yellow city tint) | Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide |
| MEF quadrant | 30 minutes of latitude by 30 minutes of longitude | Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide |
| MEF rounding | up to the next 100 feet, last two digits not printed | Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide |
| Minutes in a degree | 60 | Remote Pilot Study Guide |
| Magenta vignette Class E floor | 700 feet AGL | Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide |
| Airport colors | blue = control tower; magenta = no control tower | Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide |
Knowledge check
Choose an answer before reading the answer key.
On a sectional chart, a solid magenta line around an airport marks which airspace?
- Class B
- Class C
- Class E surface area
The outer ring of a Class C area is labeled 40 over 12. The ground is 500 feet MSL. How high above the ground does the floor of the outer ring start?
- 700 feet AGL
- 1,200 feet AGL
- 4,000 feet AGL
A chart quadrant shows an MEF of 4 over 7. What does it tell you?
- The highest known terrain or obstacle in the box is at or below 4,700 feet MSL.
- The safe altitude over the box is 47 feet AGL.
- There is a 47-foot obstacle in the box.
A question gives a site at 46.9 N and 98.6 W. What are the latitude and longitude in degrees and minutes?
- 46 degrees 09 minutes N, 98 degrees 06 minutes W
- 46 degrees 54 minutes N, 98 degrees 36 minutes W
- 46 degrees 90 minutes N, 98 degrees 60 minutes W
Airports on a sectional chart are printed in blue. What does that tell you?
- The airport has an operating control tower.
- The airport is closed.
- The airport is inside Class E airspace.
Answer key
- B. Class C. Class B is solid blue, Class C is solid magenta, Class D is dashed blue and Class E surface area is dashed magenta. Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide
- A. 700 feet AGL. The floor is 1,200 feet MSL (the bottom number, in hundreds). Subtract the 500-foot ground elevation to get 700 feet AGL. Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide; AIM 3-2-4
- A. The highest known terrain or obstacle in the box is at or below 4,700 feet MSL.. The MEF is the highest feature in the quadrant, in feet MSL, rounded up to the next 100 feet, with the last two digits not printed. Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide
- B. 46 degrees 54 minutes N, 98 degrees 36 minutes W. Multiply the decimal part by 60. 0.9 times 60 is 54 minutes, and 0.6 times 60 is 36 minutes. Remote Pilot Study Guide
- A. The airport has an operating control tower.. Airports with control towers and their related data are printed in blue. All other airports are printed in magenta. Aeronautical Chart Users' Guide
Official reading
Lesson 5 of 11
Weather Sources and Weather Effects
Where to get an aviation weather briefing, how to decode METAR and TAF reports, and how density altitude, wind, stability, storms, icing and low visibility change a drone flight.
What you will learn
- Name the free sources a remote pilot uses for weather, NOTAMs and TFRs.
- Decode the parts of a METAR and a TAF.
- Explain density altitude and predict how heat, altitude and humidity change performance.
- Describe wind, turbulence, wind shear and microbursts, and where to expect them.
- Match stable and unstable air to the weather each one brings.
- Apply the visibility and cloud clearance rules to a reported ceiling.
Where to get weather
The FAA's advisory circular for Part 107 points remote pilots to three free sources. Flight Service at 1800wxbrief.com gives briefings and NOTAMs after you make a free account. The National Weather Service Aviation Weather Center at aviationweather.gov needs no account and carries METARs, TAFs and more. The FAA TFR site at tfr.faa.gov shows flight restrictions.
The telephone version of Flight Service is meant for manned aircraft pilots. Local airport weather comes from automated stations: ASOS and AWOS report wind, visibility, clouds, temperature, dew point and altimeter setting for an airport.
Your drone app's forecast is a helpful extra. It is not an aviation weather source, so check an official aviation source as well.
Reading a METAR
A METAR is the current surface weather at an airport in a standard code. It is issued on a regular schedule, and a SPECI report is issued any time conditions change quickly. Times are in Coordinated Universal Time, written with the letter Z. Zulu time is not your local time.
Example: METAR KGGG 161753Z AUTO 14021G26KT 3/4SM +TSRA BR BKN008 OVC012CB 18/17 A2970 RMK PRESFR.
Decode it in order. KGGG is the station: K plus a three-letter airport code in the 48 states. 161753Z is day 16 at 1753 UTC. AUTO means an automated source. 14021G26KT is wind from 140 degrees true at 21 knots, gusting to 26. 3/4SM is visibility three quarters of a statute mile. +TSRA BR is heavy thunderstorm with rain, and mist.
BKN008 OVC012CB is a broken layer at 800 feet and an overcast layer at 1,200 feet with cumulonimbus clouds. Cloud heights are in hundreds of feet above ground level. 18/17 is temperature 18 degrees C and dew point 17. A2970 is altimeter setting 29.70 inches of mercury. RMK PRESFR is a remark: pressure falling rapidly.
Sky cover is counted in eighths: FEW is one or two eighths, SCT is scattered (three to four), BKN is broken (five to seven), and OVC is overcast (eight, the whole sky). A ceiling is the lowest layer that is broken or overcast, or the vertical visibility into fog or haze. FEW and SCT layers are never a ceiling. Automated stations cannot detect clouds above 12,000 feet.
Reading a TAF and other forecasts
A TAF, a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, covers the area within a 5 statute mile radius of an airport. It is valid for 24 or 30 hours and is updated four times a day, at 0000, 0600, 1200 and 1800 UTC. It uses the same codes as a METAR.
Look for FM, which marks a rapid change from a certain time. TEMPO marks a temporary change lasting less than an hour. PROB30 gives a 30 percent chance of thunderstorms or precipitation. P6SM means visibility greater than six statute miles. A TAF only shows cumulonimbus clouds in the sky group.
Convective SIGMETs warn of severe thunderstorms with surface winds above 50 knots, hail of three-quarters of an inch or more, tornadoes, and embedded or lined-up thunderstorms. A pilot report (PIREP) tells what another pilot actually saw.
Density altitude and performance
Density altitude is the altitude in the standard atmosphere that matches the actual air density. The standard atmosphere is 29.92 inches of mercury at 59 degrees F (15 degrees C) at sea level.
High density altitude means thin air and poor performance. The causes are high elevation, low pressure, high temperature and high humidity. Remember: hot, high and humid make thin air. Moist air is lighter than dry air.
Thin air means less lift and less thrust from propellers. The drone needs more power to hover, climbs slower, flies a shorter time on a charge, and may not climb at all with a heavy load.
Wind, turbulence and wind shear
Wind changes takeoff, landing and cruise. Buildings, trees, hills and cliffs break up the flow and make gusts that change quickly in speed and direction. The turbulence grows with the size of the obstacle and the strength of the wind.
On the lee side of a ridge or mountain the air follows the ground down and gets rough, and it can push an aircraft toward the ground. Valleys and canyons can have strong downdrafts. Smooth, polished-looking lenticular clouds that stand still mark mountain waves and strong turbulence.
Different ground surfaces heat the air differently. Plowed ground, rock and sand heat the air above them and make rising bumpy air. Water and trees stay cooler. That mix causes convective currents, which hurt control.
Wind shear is a sudden change in wind speed or direction over a small area. A microburst is the strongest low-level form. It is usually 1 to 2 miles across and about 1,000 feet deep, lasts 5 to 15 minutes, and can have downdrafts up to 6,000 feet per minute and headwind losses of 30 to 90 knots. It starts with a headwind, then a downdraft, then a strong tailwind.
Stability, inversions, fronts and clouds
Stable air resists vertical motion. Its weather is smooth air, layered stratus clouds and fog, steady precipitation and poor visibility in haze and smoke. Unstable air lets small upward movements grow. Its weather is rough air, cumulus clouds, showers and good visibility except in blowing dust or snow.
A temperature inversion is a layer where the temperature rises with height. It is smooth and stable, and it traps haze, fog and smoke below. A low-level inversion with high humidity brings smooth air with poor visibility, fog, haze or low clouds.
The dew point is the temperature at which air is saturated. When the air temperature and dew point are close together, fog, low clouds or rain are likely. Air can reach that point by moving over a cold surface, by mixing, by cooling at night, or by being lifted.
A front is the boundary between two different air masses. Temperature, moisture and wind often change quickly across it, and storms and low-level wind shear often come with fronts.
Thunderstorms, icing, hail and lightning
A thunderstorm cell goes through three stages: cumulus (updrafts), mature (updrafts and downdrafts, precipitation begins to fall) and dissipating (downdrafts). All the hazards peak in the mature stage. Updrafts can pass 6,000 feet per minute. A cumulus cloud can build at more than 3,000 feet per minute, so do not fly in an area of rapidly growing clouds.
Thunderstorms also bring hail, lightning, tornadoes and heavy rain. A drone has no weather radar and a short range of vision. Stay away from the storm and its gust front, and land early.
Structural icing needs two things: visible moisture, such as rain or cloud droplets, and a temperature of 0 degrees C or colder where the moisture strikes the aircraft. Frost on a surface disrupts airflow and cuts lift, so remove all frost before takeoff. Dew is not a flight hazard.
Visibility, ceilings and the legal minimums together
Part 107 requires 3 statute miles of flight visibility measured at the control station. Fog, haze, rain, smoke and blowing dust can end a flight even when the METAR looks fine, because the METAR is for a station that may be miles away.
Part 107 has no minimum ceiling. It has a cloud clearance rule: stay at least 500 feet below clouds and 2,000 feet away horizontally. If the ceiling is 700 feet AGL, the highest legal altitude is 200 feet AGL. If it is 900 feet, you may fly up to the 400-foot limit.
Plan with your own limits, below the legal ones. Look at the trend in the TAF, not just the current METAR.
Numbers to remember
| Item | Value | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Standard sea level pressure | 29.92 inches of mercury | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3b |
| Standard sea level temperature | 59 degrees F (15 degrees C) | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3b |
| TAF coverage | 5 statute mile radius, 24 or 30 hours | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3a |
| TAF issue times | 0000, 0600, 1200, 1800 UTC | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3a |
| Broken (BKN) sky cover | 5/8 to 7/8 | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3b |
| Icing conditions | visible moisture and 0 degrees C or colder | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3b |
| Microburst size and life | 1 to 2 miles wide, about 1,000 feet deep, 5 to 15 minutes | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3b |
| Convective SIGMET hail and wind | 3/4 inch or larger hail; surface winds over 50 knots | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3a |
| Minimum flight visibility | 3 statute miles | 14 CFR 107.51(c) |
| Cloud clearance | 500 feet below, 2,000 feet horizontal | 14 CFR 107.51(d) |
Knowledge check
Choose an answer before reading the answer key.
In the METAR group 14021G26KT, what does the wind do?
- It blows toward 140 degrees at 21 knots, gusting to 26.
- It blows from 140 degrees true at 21 knots, gusting to 26.
- It blows from 210 degrees at 14 knots, gusting to 26.
Which conditions give the highest density altitude?
- Low elevation, low temperature, low humidity
- High elevation, high temperature, high humidity
- High pressure, low temperature, low humidity
The METAR reports BKN007. What is the highest altitude you may fly and still meet the cloud clearance rule?
- 400 feet AGL
- 200 feet AGL
- 700 feet AGL
Which weather goes with moist, unstable air?
- Turbulence and showery precipitation
- Poor visibility and smooth air
- Haze and smoke with steady rain
What does a TAF describe?
- A forecast for the 5 statute mile radius around an airport, valid for 24 or 30 hours
- The observed weather at an airport right now
- A forecast for a whole state, updated once a day
Answer key
- B. It blows from 140 degrees true at 21 knots, gusting to 26.. The first three digits are the direction the wind comes from, in degrees true. The next two digits are knots. G gives the peak gust. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3a
- B. High elevation, high temperature, high humidity. High elevation, low pressure, high temperature and high humidity all thin the air and raise the density altitude. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3b
- B. 200 feet AGL. A broken layer at 700 feet is the ceiling. You must stay 500 feet below the cloud, so 700 minus 500 gives 200 feet AGL. 14 CFR 107.51(d)
- A. Turbulence and showery precipitation. Unstable air produces cumuliform clouds, showers and rough air. Smooth air with poor visibility goes with stable air. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3b
- A. A forecast for the 5 statute mile radius around an airport, valid for 24 or 30 hours. A TAF is a forecast for the area within 5 statute miles of the airport. It is updated four times a day. The observation is the METAR. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3a
Official reading
Lesson 6 of 11
Loading and Performance
Weight, balance and center of gravity, load factor in turns, stability, and how to use performance data and weather to plan what the aircraft can safely do.
What you will learn
- Explain why exceeding the maker's weight and balance limits is a safety problem.
- Describe center of gravity and what changes it.
- Use load factor to find how much force a turn puts on the structure, and how it raises stall speed.
- Tell stability, maneuverability and controllability apart.
- Use manufacturer performance data and the weather to judge what the aircraft can do.
Why loading matters
Every aircraft has weight and balance limits set by its maker or builder. Staying inside them is critical for safe flight. The maximum takeoff weight is a limit, not a promise: on a hot day, at a high elevation or with a rough launch area, the aircraft may need to carry less.
Part 107 itself limits the aircraft to less than 55 pounds, counting everything on board or attached. Section 107.49 also says that any object attached or carried must be secure and must not harm the flight characteristics or control.
Too much weight hurts nearly everything. The aircraft needs more power to lift off, climbs slower and lower, flies a shorter time and range, turns less well, and lands faster. The first sign of poor loading usually shows up at takeoff.
Balance and center of gravity
The center of gravity (CG) is the point where all the weight acts. It is not a fixed mark on the aircraft. It moves when you move or remove weight, such as a camera, a payload, a battery, or a load you drop.
The maker may give limits for where the CG must be. If the CG is outside them, the aircraft can be hard to control, even if the total weight is fine. If the CG is out of limits after loading, move or remove weight before flight.
On an airplane, lift acts at the center of pressure. Designers keep the CG forward of that point, so the aircraft tends to nose down and stays stable. A CG too far back reduces stability.
Weight can also change during a flight. The most common example on manned aircraft is burning fuel. For a drone, a released or dropped load changes both weight and balance in the middle of the flight.
Load factor
Load factor is the ratio of the lift the wing must make to the aircraft's weight. It is measured in Gs. In straight, level flight it is 1 G. In a level turn it rises with the angle of bank.
In a coordinated level turn at 60 degrees of bank, the load factor is 2 G. At 45 degrees it is about 1.4 G. At 30 degrees it is about 1.15 G. At 80 degrees it climbs to about 5.8 G. Past 45 or 50 degrees the number rises very fast. You can find it by dividing 1 by the cosine of the bank angle.
The test gives you a figure from the supplement book. You read the load factor for the bank angle and multiply it by the weight. Example: a 33-pound aircraft in a 30 degree level turn has to support about 33 times 1.15, or about 38 pounds.
Load factor and stall speed
A wing can stall at any speed if the angle of attack gets high enough. A higher load factor raises the speed at which it stalls. The stall speed grows with the square root of the load factor.
Example: an aircraft that stalls at 50 knots in straight flight stalls at 100 knots at 4 G, because the square root of 4 is 2. A bank of about 70 degrees holds 3 G, so an aircraft with a 45-knot stall speed would stall near 78 knots.
Hard turns and sudden pull-ups near the ground cause accidents because both load factor and stall speed rise at the very time you have the least room to recover.
Stability, maneuverability and controllability
Stability is the built-in tendency of the aircraft to return to its flight path after something disturbs it. It is mostly a design feature.
Maneuverability is how easily the aircraft can be maneuvered and how well it handles the stress of maneuvering. Controllability is how well it responds to the pilot's control inputs, whatever its stability. Weight, inertia, size and location of the controls, structure and power plant all affect them.
An aircraft that is very stable usually responds less quickly. Loading it heavily can reduce its response further.
Weather's effect on performance
Performance means what the aircraft can do: takeoff and landing distance, rate of climb, ceiling, payload, range, speed, maneuverability and endurance. Density altitude has a direct effect on all of them, and wind affects takeoff, landing and cruise.
Thin air from high temperature, high elevation and high humidity cuts lift and propeller thrust, so climb performance drops as density altitude rises. Adding weight on top of poor air multiplies the problem.
If the maker lists temperature or wind limits, treat them as part of the loading limits.
Using performance data
Makers publish performance data such as hover time, climb, range and endurance. The data is not standardized between makers. If your maker gives none, look for data that other users of the same model have published and treat it as a starting point.
Before a flight, match the numbers to the plan. Section 107.49 requires enough power for the whole planned flight. Anti-collision lights, a heavy payload and thin air can all cut your flight time, so plan a margin.
A good routine: weigh the loaded aircraft, check the CG, check the weather and density altitude, test hover and controls low and near you, then climb.
Numbers to remember
| Item | Value | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Load factor in a level turn, 60 degrees of bank | 2 G | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 4 |
| Load factor in a level turn, 45 degrees | about 1.4 G | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 4 |
| Load factor in a level turn, 30 degrees | about 1.15 G | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 4 |
| Load factor in a level turn, 80 degrees | about 5.8 G | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 4 |
| Stall speed and load factor | stall speed rises with the square root of the load factor | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 4 |
| Stall speed at 4 G if the 1 G stall speed is 50 knots | 100 knots | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 4 |
| Maximum weight under Part 107 | less than 55 pounds | 14 CFR 107.3 |
| Standard sea level pressure for density altitude work | 29.92 inches of mercury | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 3b |
Knowledge check
Choose an answer before reading the answer key.
What is the load factor in a coordinated level turn at 60 degrees of bank?
- 1 G
- 2 G
- 4 G
A 33-pound aircraft flies a coordinated 30 degree level turn. About how much weight must its structure support?
- 34 pounds
- 38 pounds
- 47 pounds
An aircraft that stalls at 50 knots in straight, level flight is put in a turn that holds 4 G. About what speed does it stall at now?
- Still 50 knots
- 100 knots
- 200 knots
What can happen when the center of gravity is outside the maker's limits?
- Nothing, if the weight is under the maximum.
- The aircraft can become hard to control.
- The aircraft always flies slower but safely.
Which of these is an effect of a heavily loaded small unmanned aircraft?
- Shorter takeoff run
- Reduced rate and angle of climb
- Lower stall speed
Answer key
- B. 2 G. At 60 degrees of bank in a level turn the wing makes twice the aircraft's weight in lift, which is 2 G. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 4
- B. 38 pounds. The load factor at 30 degrees is about 1.15. 33 times 1.15 is about 38 pounds. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 4; UAG sample questions
- B. 100 knots. Stall speed rises with the square root of the load factor. The square root of 4 is 2, so 50 becomes 100 knots. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 4
- B. The aircraft can become hard to control.. Operating with the CG outside approved limits causes control difficulty. Weight and balance both matter. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 4
- B. Reduced rate and angle of climb. Excess weight lengthens the takeoff run, cuts climb rate and angle, reduces range and raises stall speed. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 4
Official reading
Lesson 7 of 11
Operations Over People and at Night
The default ban on flying over people, the four categories that allow it, moving vehicles and open-air crowds, plus the lighting and training rules for twilight and night flights.
What you will learn
- State the three ways a flight over a person can be legal under section 107.39.
- Compare Category 1, 2, 3 and 4: weight or energy limit, paperwork, label and where each may fly.
- Explain the rules for open-air assemblies and moving vehicles.
- State the anti-collision light and training rules for night and civil twilight.
- Apply visual line of sight, hazards and visual illusions to a night flight plan.
The basic rule over people
No one may fly a small unmanned aircraft over a human being unless one of three things is true. The person is directly participating in the operation. The person is under a covered structure or inside a stationary vehicle that gives reasonable protection from a falling aircraft. Or the operation meets one of the four categories in Subpart D.
Direct participants are the people the operation needs: the remote pilot in command, the person at the controls, visual observers and other crew. The remote PIC briefs them. Everyone else is a non-participant.
Part 107 sets no fixed stand-off distance from people. The FAA expects the remote PIC to judge it. Think about the aircraft's speed and path, what happens if it fails, the wind, and where people could walk into the area.
Category 1: very light aircraft
A Category 1 aircraft weighs 0.55 pounds (250 grams) or less on takeoff and during the whole operation, counting everything on board or attached. It must have no exposed rotating parts that could cut human skin on impact.
There is no paperwork for the maker. The remote pilot is responsible for checking the weight and the parts.
A Category 1 aircraft may not be in sustained flight over an open-air assembly of people unless the operation meets the Remote ID rules, either a standard Remote ID aircraft or a broadcast module (14 CFR 89.110 or 89.115(a)).
Category 2 and Category 3: tested by impact energy
Category 2 and 3 aircraft are heavier than Category 1 but pass a test of how hard they hit. In Category 2, the injury from an impact must be no worse than the injury from 11 foot-pounds of kinetic energy from a rigid object. In Category 3 the number is 25 foot-pounds.
Both need no exposed rotating parts that would cut skin, and no safety defects. The maker must submit a declaration of compliance (DoC) that the FAA accepts, and the aircraft must carry a permanent label that says it is eligible. The remote PIC checks that the aircraft is on an FAA-accepted DoC and has the label. The FAA keeps the list at uasdoc.faa.gov. If the label is damaged or missing, the remote PIC must relabel the aircraft before flying over people.
Category 2 may fly over people. It follows the same open-air assembly rule as Category 1: no sustained flight over an open-air assembly unless Remote ID is met.
Category 3 is more restricted. It may never fly over an open-air assembly of people. It may fly over people only in a closed or restricted-access site where everyone has been told that a drone may fly over them, or without sustained flight over any person who is not taking part, unless the person is under a covered structure or in a stationary vehicle that gives reasonable protection.
An aircraft that can change modes or configuration can qualify for more than one category only if the remote pilot cannot switch between them by accident.
Category 4: the aircraft has an airworthiness certificate
A Category 4 aircraft has an airworthiness certificate issued by the FAA under Part 21. It must be flown within the limits in its approved flight manual, and those limits must not forbid flights over people.
The owner or operator keeps the aircraft maintained to the maker's methods and keeps records of the work, the status of life-limited parts, inspections and airworthiness directives. Maintenance records must be kept for 1 year or until the work is repeated. The other records go with the aircraft when it changes owners.
Category 4 follows the same open-air assembly rule as Categories 1 and 2.
Open-air assemblies and moving vehicles
Sustained flight over an open-air assembly includes hovering over the heads of the crowd, flying back and forth over it, and circling above it. A single quick crossing that is only incidental to a point-to-point flight does not count as sustained.
For moving vehicles, a Category 1, 2 or 3 aircraft may fly over a person in a moving vehicle if the flight stays within a closed or restricted-access site and everyone in the vehicles has been told, or if the aircraft does not stay in sustained flight over the vehicles. Category 4 follows its flight manual limits.
These rules, and the open-air assembly rule, can be waived if the FAA agrees. Waivers are handled in the operating rules module.
Night and civil twilight rules
Night flight is legal without a waiver if two things are true. First, the remote PIC has completed an initial knowledge test or training, or the recurrent training, after April 6, 2021. Those versions include night operation topics. Recurrent training taken before that date does not count. Second, the aircraft has lighted anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles with a flash rate that avoids collisions.
The pilot may dim the anti-collision lights if safety calls for it, for example if the light dazzles the pilot. The lights may never be turned off.
Civil twilight needs lights too. In the continental United States civil twilight runs from 30 minutes before official sunrise to sunrise, and from official sunset to 30 minutes after sunset. The lighting rule for twilight is the same, but the training rule applies only to night. Night is the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the start of morning civil twilight. Alaska uses the Air Almanac.
Flying safely at night
Visual line of sight still applies. The aircraft's lights and the control screen cannot replace seeing the aircraft with your own eyes. At night, plan a smaller operating area so that you can keep the aircraft in sight and know its position, altitude and attitude.
Check before the flight: the anti-collision light works and the battery will last the planned time with the light on. Plan around unlit hazards on the ground such as wires, guy wires and trees. Lit towers and obstacles help, but many hazards are not lit, and wind turbine blades are not lit.
Manned aircraft show a red light on the left wing tip, a green light on the right wing tip and a white light at the tail. Seeing red and green together means the aircraft is coming toward you.
Night vision and night illusions are covered in the physiology section of the decision-making module. In short: let your eyes adapt, do not stare at one point, and keep white light away from your eyes.
Numbers to remember
| Item | Value | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Category 1 maximum weight | 0.55 pound (250 grams) on takeoff and throughout | 14 CFR 107.110(a)(1) |
| Category 2 impact energy limit | 11 foot-pounds | 14 CFR 107.120(a)(1) |
| Category 3 impact energy limit | 25 foot-pounds | 14 CFR 107.130(a)(1) |
| Category 4 requirement | airworthiness certificate under Part 21 | 14 CFR 107.140(b)(1) |
| Anti-collision light visibility | at least 3 statute miles | 14 CFR 107.29(a)(2) |
| Civil twilight (continental United States) | 30 minutes before sunrise to sunrise, and sunset to 30 minutes after sunset | 14 CFR 107.29(c) |
| Training date that includes night privileges | after April 6, 2021 | 14 CFR 107.29(a)(1) |
| Category 4 maintenance records | kept 1 year or until repeated | 14 CFR 107.140(c)(4) |
Knowledge check
Choose an answer before reading the answer key.
To conduct Category 1 operations, the aircraft must weigh
- 0.55 pounds or less.
- 0.65 pounds or less.
- 0.75 pounds or less.
Which category of small unmanned aircraft must have an airworthiness certificate issued by the FAA?
- Category 4
- Category 3
- Category 2
Which statement about flying a Category 3 aircraft is correct?
- It may be flown in sustained flight over an open-air assembly.
- It may never be flown over an open-air assembly of people.
- It needs no label if the pilot knows its category.
A remote pilot flies 20 minutes after official sunset in the continental United States. What is required?
- Nothing special, since it is before night.
- Lighted anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles, because this is civil twilight.
- A waiver, because twilight flights are not allowed.
A pilot completed recurrent training in 2020 and wants to fly at night in 2026 without a waiver. What is the problem?
- There is no problem.
- That recurrent training was taken before April 6, 2021, so it did not include night operations. The pilot must complete the current training or test.
- Night flights always need a waiver.
Answer key
- A. 0.55 pounds or less.. Section 107.110 sets 0.55 pound, which is 250 grams, including everything on board. 14 CFR 107.110(a)(1)
- A. Category 4. Only Category 4 requires an airworthiness certificate under Part 21. Categories 2 and 3 use a declaration of compliance and a label. 14 CFR 107.140(b)(1)
- B. It may never be flown over an open-air assembly of people.. Section 107.125(b) says a Category 3 operation must not be over open-air assemblies. It also needs a label and an accepted DoC. 14 CFR 107.125(b)
- B. Lighted anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles, because this is civil twilight.. Civil twilight lasts until 30 minutes after sunset. Section 107.29(b) requires the anti-collision light for civil twilight. The training rule applies only at night. 14 CFR 107.29(b), (c)
- B. That recurrent training was taken before April 6, 2021, so it did not include night operations. The pilot must complete the current training or test.. Night privileges need a test or training completed after April 6, 2021, because only those versions include night operations content. 14 CFR 107.29(a)(1); FAA Part 107 airspace authorizations page
Official reading
Lesson 8 of 11
Aircraft Registration and Remote ID (14 CFR Part 89)
How to register and mark a Part 107 aircraft, what Remote ID is, the three ways to comply, what each one broadcasts, and what to do when the broadcast fails.
What you will learn
- Explain which drones must be registered and how registration works for Part 107 flying.
- Describe the three ways to meet the Remote ID rule.
- Compare the message elements of standard Remote ID and a broadcast module.
- State what the pilot must do when Remote ID stops working in flight.
- Explain what ADS-B Out, FRIAs and declarations of compliance have to do with Remote ID.
Registering a Part 107 aircraft
Section 107.13 requires you to have the aircraft registration that 14 CFR 91.203(a)(2) calls for. For a small unmanned aircraft flown under Part 107, that means registering with the FAA's FAADroneZone and receiving a certificate of aircraft registration. The weight exemption for 0.55 pound drones applies only to flights that are purely recreational. A Part 107 flight needs registration at any weight.
The fee is $5 per aircraft and the registration lasts 3 years. A person must be at least 13 years old to register, and in general must be a U.S. citizen or legal permanent resident. Renew within the six months before the month it expires. A registration made under the recreational exception cannot be moved to Part 107 use, and the reverse is also true.
Keep the registration certificate, on paper or on a phone, with you when you fly. Show it to any federal, state or local law enforcement officer who asks. Update your information within 14 calendar days of a change, or when the aircraft is sold or destroyed.
Marking the aircraft
The unique identifier, normally the registration number, must be on an external surface of the aircraft, legible, and fixed so that it stays on for the whole flight. Part of the preflight check is to see that the marking is still there and readable.
If the FAA agrees, the aircraft's serial number may serve as the unique identifier.
What Remote ID is and who must follow it
Remote ID lets a drone in flight send out identification and location information that anyone nearby can receive. It helps the FAA, law enforcement and other agencies find the control station of a drone that is flying unsafely or in the wrong place.
Part 89 applies to unmanned aircraft that are registered or required to be registered, and to foreign civil drones flown in the United States. Since September 16, 2023, no one may fly such an aircraft in U.S. airspace unless the flight meets one of the compliance options.
Part 107 pilots register every device separately and each device gets its own registration number. A pilot lists the Remote ID serial number of each standard Remote ID drone or broadcast module in the registration.
Three ways to comply
1. Standard Remote ID aircraft. The drone is built with the capability. It must broadcast from takeoff to shutdown, its serial number must be on an FAA-accepted declaration of compliance, the equipment must work and be on, and the registration must list the serial number. If the broadcast stops, the pilot must land as soon as practicable.
2. Broadcast module. A module attached to a drone that has no built-in Remote ID. The module's serial number must be on an accepted declaration of compliance and in the registration. It must broadcast directly from the aircraft. The person at the controls must be able to see the aircraft at all times, must check the module works before takeoff, and must land as soon as practicable if the broadcast stops.
3. FAA-recognized identification area (FRIA). A drone without Remote ID may fly inside a FRIA, if it and the pilot stay inside the boundary and the person at the controls can see the aircraft at all times. Only community-based organizations the FAA recognizes and educational institutions may ask for a FRIA. A FRIA lasts 48 calendar months, and a renewal request is due at least 120 days before it ends.
What gets broadcast
A standard Remote ID aircraft broadcasts: a serial number or a session ID (identity), the latitude, longitude and geometric altitude of the control station, the latitude, longitude and geometric altitude of the aircraft, the aircraft's velocity, a UTC time mark, and the emergency status of the aircraft. The control station location is the location of the person at the controls.
A broadcast module sends: the module's serial number, the aircraft's latitude, longitude, geometric altitude and velocity, the latitude, longitude and geometric altitude of the take-off location, and a UTC time mark.
The big difference: standard Remote ID reports the control station location and emergency status. A broadcast module reports the take-off location instead.
When the signal fails, ADS-B and Part 107
If a standard Remote ID aircraft or module stops broadcasting during flight, land as soon as practicable. A standard aircraft also runs a self-test before takeoff and cannot take off if its Remote ID equipment is not working.
ADS-B Out cannot be used to meet the Remote ID rule. Also, under Part 107, you may not operate with a transponder on or with ADS-B Out in transmit mode unless the FAA authorizes it.
Part 91 flights that transmit ADS-B Out under 14 CFR 91.225 are outside Part 89 subpart B.
Declarations of compliance, labels and foreign drones
The maker of a standard Remote ID aircraft or module submits a declaration of compliance to the FAA. Pilots do not submit one. A pilot checks the FAA's list of accepted declarations, at uasdoc.faa.gov, to confirm that a drone or module qualifies.
Makers must put a label on a standard Remote ID aircraft or module that says it meets Part 89. The label must be in English, legible, prominent and permanently attached.
Anyone flying a foreign-registered drone with Remote ID in the United States must first send the FAA a notice of identification. The FAA then issues a Confirmation of Identification, which is kept at the control station. This is not U.S. registration.
Numbers to remember
| Item | Value | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Remote ID required since | September 16, 2023 | 14 CFR 89.105 |
| Registration fee | $5 per aircraft | 14 CFR 48.30 |
| Registration lasts | 3 years | 14 CFR 48.100(c) |
| Update registration after a change | within 14 calendar days | 14 CFR 48.115(b) |
| Minimum age to register | 13 | FAA: How to Register Your Drone |
| FRIA duration | 48 calendar months | 14 CFR 89.225 |
| FRIA renewal request | at least 120 days before expiry | 14 CFR 89.225(b) |
| Standard Remote ID | control station and emergency status are broadcast | 14 CFR 89.305 |
| Broadcast module | take-off location is broadcast; pilot must see the aircraft at all times | 14 CFR 89.315; 89.115(a) |
Knowledge check
Choose an answer before reading the answer key.
A Part 107 pilot flies a small drone that weighs 0.5 pound. Must it be registered?
- No, because it weighs 0.55 pound or less.
- Yes. The weight exemption applies only to purely recreational flying.
- Only if it flies above 200 feet.
Which Remote ID option requires the person at the controls to be able to see the aircraft at all times?
- Standard Remote ID aircraft only
- Broadcast module and operation inside a FRIA
- No option requires it
Which item does a broadcast module send that a standard Remote ID aircraft does not?
- The take-off location
- The control station location
- The emergency status
What must a person at the controls do if standard Remote ID fails during a flight?
- Land the aircraft as soon as practicable.
- Notify the nearest FAA air traffic facility.
- Turn on ADS-B Out.
Where must a drone's or module's serial number be listed to use standard Remote ID or a broadcast module?
- On the FAA-accepted declaration of compliance and in the registration
- Only in the maker's manual
- On a pilot's logbook page
Answer key
- B. Yes. The weight exemption applies only to purely recreational flying.. Under Part 48 and the FAA registration rules, aircraft flown for any purpose other than limited recreation must be registered, whatever they weigh. 14 CFR 48.100; FAA: How to Register Your Drone
- B. Broadcast module and operation inside a FRIA. Both 89.115(a) and 89.115(b) require the person manipulating the controls to see the aircraft at all times. 14 CFR 89.115
- A. The take-off location. A standard Remote ID aircraft sends the control station location and emergency status. A broadcast module sends the take-off location. 14 CFR 89.305; 89.315
- A. Land the aircraft as soon as practicable.. Section 89.110(a)(2) requires the person at the controls to land as soon as practicable. ADS-B Out cannot replace Remote ID. 14 CFR 89.110(a)(2); 89.125
- A. On the FAA-accepted declaration of compliance and in the registration. Sections 89.110 and 89.115 require the serial number to be on an accepted declaration of compliance, and the registration (or a notice of identification) must include it. 14 CFR 89.110(b); 89.115(a)(1)
Official reading
Lesson 9 of 11
Radio Communication and Airport Operations
Aviation radio terms and frequencies that remote pilots should understand, plus runway numbers, markings, signs, lighting, traffic patterns, security areas and wildlife at airports.
What you will learn
- Explain why a remote pilot learns radio procedures even though Part 107 does not require radio contact.
- Name the frequencies and services used at airports with and without a control tower.
- Say a call sign and numbers with the phonetic alphabet and standard phraseology.
- Read runway numbers, markings, signs and lights, including the airport beacon.
- Describe the traffic pattern and the airport hazards that matter to a drone pilot.
Why a drone pilot learns aviation radio
A remote pilot is not required to talk to manned aircraft. You should not transmit on an active aviation frequency unless there is an emergency. But many drone flights happen near airports, and a handheld radio or scanner tuned to the airport frequency gives you traffic awareness that you cannot get any other way.
Your duty never changes: look and listen, and give way. Manned pilots at a non-towered airport are not required to make radio calls, so silence on the radio does not mean the sky is empty.
Frequencies and services at airports
A tower controls traffic at a towered airport. At an airport with no operating tower, pilots use a common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF) to announce where they are and what they plan to do. The CTAF can be a tower, Flight Service, UNICOM or MULTICOM frequency. It is printed on the chart and in the Chart Supplement.
UNICOM is an airport advisory station, often on 122.8 MHz. MULTICOM is 122.9 MHz, used at an airport that has no tower, Flight Service or UNICOM. Always confirm in the Chart Supplement or on the chart, because frequencies vary.
ATIS is a recorded broadcast of weather, active runways and notices that a busy airport updates regularly. Some airports also have automated weather, which a pilot reaches by radio.
How manned pilots self-announce
At a non-towered airport, a pilot should say the airport name, the aircraft call sign, the position and the intentions, and then repeat the airport name. A typical inbound call is made about 10 miles out, for example: Town and Country traffic, Cessna 123 Bravo Foxtrot, 10 miles south inbound for landing, Town and Country traffic.
Other calls: entering the pattern, midfield downwind, base, final, clear of the runway, and ready for departure. If you hear these calls near your site, a manned aircraft is in the pattern and your drone must give way and stay out.
Call signs for small aircraft use the make and the last letters or numbers of the registration. N123AB becomes Cessna One Two Three Alpha Bravo. Airliners use the company name and the flight number.
Phonetic alphabet and phraseology
The phonetic alphabet: Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Foxtrot, Golf, Hotel, India, Juliet, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo, Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whiskey, X-ray, Yankee, Zulu. The digit 9 is said niner.
Altitudes are spoken in thousands and hundreds: 3,500 is three thousand five hundred. Directions are spoken as three digits in degrees: wind two seven zero at one five. Speeds are in knots. Time on the radio and in weather reports is Coordinated Universal Time, said as four digits followed by Zulu.
Types of airports and security areas
The test uses several airport types: towered airports, non-towered airports, heliports and seaplane bases. Section 107.43 applies to all of them. Do not interfere with their traffic or operations.
A Security Identification Display Area (SIDA) is a part of an airport with extra security rules, where people must display airport-issued identification. Get the airport operator's approval before you work in or near one.
Runway numbers, markings and signs
A runway number is the runway's magnetic direction in tens of degrees, rounded to the nearest whole number. Runway 27 points about 270 degrees magnetic. Letters L, C and R separate parallel runways.
Runway markings are white. Taxiway markings, hold-short markings and markings for closed or hazardous areas are yellow. A closed runway has yellow crosses at each end. A displaced threshold has white arrows leading up to a bar across the runway.
A runway holding position marking is four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed. The solid lines are on the side where aircraft must hold. Signs with a red background and white letters are mandatory instructions such as a hold-short sign. Yellow signs with black letters give directions. Black signs with yellow letters tell a pilot which taxiway they are on.
Airport lighting
The airport beacon flashes white and green for a lighted land airport, white and yellow for a lighted water airport, and green, yellow and white for a heliport. Military airports show two quick white flashes between the green. In Class B, C, D and surface Class E areas, a beacon that is on in daytime often means the visibility is less than 3 miles or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
Runway edge lights are white, but on instrument runways the last 2,000 feet (or half the runway, whichever is less) are yellow. Lights at the runway ends show red toward the runway and green outward for the threshold. Taxiway edge lights are blue. Taxiway centerline lights are green.
Traffic patterns and wildlife
The standard pattern has these legs: upwind, crosswind, downwind, base and final. The usual pattern altitude is 1,000 feet above the airport for propeller aircraft and at least 1,500 feet for large and turbine aircraft. Patterns have left turns unless the chart or Chart Supplement says right traffic.
Worked example: a pilot reports midfield left downwind for runway 13. Runway 13 points about 130 degrees, toward the southeast. A left pattern lies to the left of the landing direction, which puts the aircraft northeast of the runway. On a short list of compass choices, the best fit is east.
Keep your drone out of the pattern and away from approach and departure paths, including the extended runway centerline. Manned aircraft are low and slow there.
Birds and other wildlife are a hazard for both drones and manned aircraft. Avoid flocks and nesting areas. The FAA asks that wildlife strikes be reported to its Wildlife Strike Database.
Numbers to remember
| Item | Value | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Common UNICOM frequency | 122.8 MHz | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 7 |
| MULTICOM frequency | 122.9 MHz | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 7; AIM 4-1-9 |
| Self-announce position call | about 10 miles out | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 7 |
| Pattern altitude for propeller aircraft | 1,000 feet AGL | AIM 4-3-3 |
| Pattern altitude for large and turbine aircraft | at least 1,500 feet AGL | AIM 4-3-3 |
| Beacon: lighted land airport | white and green | AIM 2-1-9 |
| Beacon: lighted water airport | white and yellow | AIM 2-1-9 |
| Beacon: heliport | green, yellow and white | AIM 2-1-9 |
| Daytime beacon in controlled surface areas often means | less than 3 miles visibility or less than 1,000 feet ceiling | AIM 2-1-9 |
| Taxiway edge lights | blue | AIM 2-1-10 |
Knowledge check
Choose an answer before reading the answer key.
A rotating airport beacon flashes white and green. What does it mark?
- A lighted land airport
- A lighted water airport
- A military airport only
Which frequency is the MULTICOM frequency used at an airport with no tower, Flight Service or UNICOM?
- 121.5 MHz
- 122.9 MHz
- 123.0 MHz
A runway is marked 27. About what magnetic direction does it point?
- 27 degrees
- 270 degrees
- 207 degrees
A small airplane pilot at a non-towered airport makes no radio calls. What should the drone pilot conclude?
- No manned aircraft is nearby.
- The pilot is not required to call, so the drone pilot must still scan and give way.
- The airport is closed.
Four yellow lines across a taxiway, two solid and two dashed, mark a runway holding position. Where are the solid lines?
- On the runway side
- On the side where the aircraft must hold
- In the middle of the marking
Answer key
- A. A lighted land airport. White and green marks a lighted land airport. White and yellow is a water airport, and green, yellow and white is a heliport. AIM 2-1-9
- B. 122.9 MHz. MULTICOM is 122.9 MHz for an airport that has no tower, Flight Service or UNICOM. UNICOM is often 122.8 MHz. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 7
- B. 270 degrees. A runway number is the magnetic direction divided by 10, rounded to the nearest whole number. 27 means about 270 degrees. AIM 2-3-3
- B. The pilot is not required to call, so the drone pilot must still scan and give way.. Radio calls by manned aircraft at non-towered airports are recommended but not required. A remote pilot must see and avoid and yield to all aircraft. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 7; 14 CFR 107.37
- B. On the side where the aircraft must hold. The solid lines are always on the side where the aircraft must hold. AIM 2-3-5
Official reading
- Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapters 7 and 11
- AIM Chapter 2: Aeronautical Lighting and Airport Visual Aids
- AIM Chapter 2, Section 3: Airport Marking Aids and Signs
- AIM Chapter 4, Section 3: Airport Operations (traffic patterns)
- PHAK Chapter 14: Airport Operations
- FAA Wildlife Hazard Mitigation and strike reporting
Lesson 10 of 11
Emergency Procedures, Batteries and Maintenance
Planning for emergencies, lost links and flyaways, GPS loss, radio frequency limits, lithium battery safety, preflight inspection and maintenance of a small UAS.
What you will learn
- Plan and brief emergency and contingency procedures before a flight.
- Explain lost link, flyaway and GPS loss, and how to reduce the risk.
- Name the radio bands that small UAS use and the limits of a line-of-sight link.
- Handle, charge, carry and inspect lithium batteries safely.
- Carry out a thorough preflight inspection and decide when an aircraft is not safe to fly.
- Describe how maintenance and records work under Part 107.
Planning and briefing for emergencies
Before each flight, the remote PIC makes sure everyone who helps is told about the operating conditions, emergency procedures, contingency procedures, roles and responsibilities, and potential hazards (14 CFR 107.49(b)). The remote PIC, not an inspector or a lead observer, is the one who briefs the team.
A good plan names a place to land if things go wrong, a way for people to stay clear of the flight area, a way for the team to talk, and what each person does in each case. Contingency plans cover people or vehicles who wander into the flight area.
In an in-flight emergency the remote PIC may deviate from any Part 107 rule as far as needed to handle it, and sends a written report only if the FAA asks. An example from the FAA study guide: if a battery catches fire in flight, the pilot may climb above 400 feet AGL to reach a safe landing area.
Lost link and flyaways
A lost link, also called loss of control link, means the aircraft no longer follows commands from the controller. A flyaway is an aircraft that leaves its intended flight path and cannot be brought back. The FAA ties both to radio frequency problems, such as interference in crowded areas and obstacles that block the line-of-sight link.
Know what your aircraft does when the link is lost. Many hover, land or return to a home point. Check that the home point is right and that the return altitude clears every obstacle. Do these checks before you take off.
Before flight, check that control inputs match the aircraft's response. If controls are delayed or out of sync, the FAA says to stop flying until the control link has been inspected and tested.
Radio frequencies and their limits
Most small UAS use unlicensed radio bands: 2.4 GHz and 5.8 GHz (also 900 MHz in some systems). Many aircraft use 5.8 GHz for control and 2.4 GHz for video. These bands are also used by Wi-Fi, so a crowded neighborhood or office area can cause interference and trouble such as lost links or flyaways.
Both bands need a clear line of sight. Buildings, trees, hills and your own body can block the signal. Part 107 requires the remote PIC or the person at the controls to keep sight of the aircraft, which also helps keep the link line of sight.
The FCC controls radio frequencies. Unlicensed bands may be used without an FCC license. Any other band needs a license for civil users.
Loss of GPS
Many small aircraft use GPS to hold position, to return home and to respect geofences. If the signal drops, the aircraft may drift with the wind, may not hold its position, and may not be able to return home on its own.
Be ready to fly the aircraft by hand and land at once. Do not fly in places with weak GPS, such as between tall buildings or under heavy cover, unless you have practiced flying without it. Before takeoff, wait until the aircraft has acquired the number of satellites the maker requires.
Lithium batteries
Lithium batteries are highly flammable and can ignite. Fires follow a short circuit, wrong charging, extreme heat, crash damage, rough handling or a defect. A battery fire in flight can cause loss of control, so battery care is a safety matter, not just a cost matter.
Follow the maker's rules for use, charging and storage. Do not fly a battery whose case is swollen or bulging, or one that has lost much of its flight time. Both can mean the battery is about to fail, with power loss, fire or explosion.
To carry spare lithium batteries on an airline flight, the FAA says they must go in carry-on baggage only, with the terminals protected from short circuit. The usual limit is 100 watt hours per battery, and the airline may allow up to two larger ones (101 to 160 watt hours) with approval. Watt hours equal volts times amp hours. Damaged or recalled batteries must not be carried.
If a battery is hot, smoking or swelling on the ground, move it away from people and flammable items and follow the maker's guidance.
Preflight inspection
Section 107.15 requires a check of the whole system before each flight to decide if it is in a condition for safe operation. If you find a problem, fix it before flying. If you learn during flight that it is no longer safe, stop the flight.
The FAA's advisory circular lists things to look at: the airframe, propulsion, propellers, moving parts, camera and payload attachment, registration marking, control link, GPS lock, batteries for the aircraft and the controller, the display, the compass, lights if it is twilight or night, and a low-altitude test of the controls near you.
Signs the aircraft may be unsafe: cracks, delamination, leaks, strong smells of burning, soot, a changed motor sound, delayed controls, bulging batteries, shorter flight times, and loose or missing hardware.
Maintenance and records
Part 107 has no maintenance rule for most small UAS beyond the rule that the aircraft be in a condition for safe operation (section 107.15). Only Category 4 aircraft have maintenance rules (section 107.140). The FAA advises following the maker's schedule and instructions, doing unscheduled repairs when you find a problem, and not flying until the issue is fixed. If the maker requires its own technicians for a task, use them.
If a repair cannot return the aircraft or part to a safe condition, replace it. Keep records of repairs, replacements and time in service, because they help you spot patterns and show good practice. The FAA recommends them for most aircraft.
Category 4 aircraft are different. The owner must keep maintenance, life-limited part, inspection and airworthiness directive records, as covered in the over-people module. Keep software and firmware updates in your records too.
Numbers to remember
| Item | Value | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Accident report deadline | 10 calendar days | 14 CFR 107.9 |
| Radio bands most small UAS use | 900 MHz, 2.4 GHz and 5.8 GHz (unlicensed) | AC 107-2A Appendix B |
| Rules a pilot may deviate from in an in-flight emergency | any Part 107 rule, only as far as needed | 14 CFR 107.21 |
| Spare lithium battery limit on airlines (typical) | 100 watt hours each, carry-on only | FAA PackSafe: Lithium Batteries |
| Watt hours | volts times amp hours | FAA PackSafe: Lithium Batteries |
| Maintenance records kept for Category 4 work | 1 year, or until repeated | 14 CFR 107.140(c)(4) |
Knowledge check
Choose an answer before reading the answer key.
When using a small UA in a commercial operation, who is responsible for briefing the participants about emergency procedures?
- The FAA inspector in charge
- The lead visual observer
- The remote PIC
A battery catches fire in flight. What does Part 107 allow the remote PIC to do?
- Nothing outside the normal rules
- Deviate from any rule as far as needed, for example climb above 400 feet AGL to reach a safe landing area
- Deviate from any rule without limit and file a report within 10 days
During the preflight check a battery is swollen. What is the best decision?
- Fly short flights only.
- Do not fly with it and handle it by the maker's guidance.
- Charge it fully and then fly.
Which frequency bands do most small UAS use for control and video?
- Licensed aviation bands near 120 MHz
- Unlicensed bands such as 2.4 GHz and 5.8 GHz
- Cell phone bands only
How must spare lithium batteries travel on an airline flight?
- Checked baggage only
- Carry-on baggage only, with terminals protected
- Either, with no precautions
Answer key
- C. The remote PIC. Section 107.49(b) puts the briefing on the remote pilot in command. 14 CFR 107.49(b)
- B. Deviate from any rule as far as needed, for example climb above 400 feet AGL to reach a safe landing area. Section 107.21 lets the pilot deviate only to the extent necessary for the emergency. A written report is needed only if the FAA asks. 14 CFR 107.21
- B. Do not fly with it and handle it by the maker's guidance.. A distorted case can mean impending failure with abrupt power loss, fire or explosion. The aircraft is not in a condition for safe operation with that battery. AC 107-2A Appendix C; 14 CFR 107.15
- B. Unlicensed bands such as 2.4 GHz and 5.8 GHz. Most small UAS use the unlicensed 2.4 GHz and 5.8 GHz bands, which are shared with Wi-Fi and need line of sight. AC 107-2A Appendix B
- B. Carry-on baggage only, with terminals protected. The FAA says spare lithium batteries must be in carry-on baggage only, with the terminals protected from short circuit. FAA PackSafe: Lithium Batteries
Official reading
Lesson 11 of 11
Decision Making, Crew Resource Management and Human Factors
Risk management, the five hazardous attitudes and their antidotes, IMSAFE and PAVE, working with a crew, drugs and alcohol, stress, fatigue, dehydration, vision and night illusions.
What you will learn
- Explain aeronautical decision-making (ADM) and the steps of risk management.
- Name the five hazardous attitudes and the antidote for each.
- Use the IMSAFE and PAVE checklists before a flight.
- Describe crew resource management (CRM) and situational awareness for a small UAS crew.
- Explain how alcohol, drugs, stress, fatigue, dehydration and hyperventilation affect a pilot.
- Describe night vision, dark adaptation and the visual illusions that matter to night flight.
Aeronautical decision-making and risk management
Aeronautical decision-making (ADM) is a step-by-step way to decide the best action in a given situation, using the latest information. The FAA teaches that good judgment can be learned. It does not simply grow with experience.
The steps are: identify attitudes that are hazardous to safe flight, learn how to change behavior, recognize and cope with stress, build risk assessment skills, use all resources, and judge how well your own ADM is working.
A hazard is a real or perceived condition that a pilot meets. Risk is the pilot's assessment of that hazard. Four risk management principles: accept no unnecessary risk; make risk decisions at the right level; accept risk when the benefits outweigh the costs; and build risk management into planning at all levels.
A safety culture grows when a team recognizes hazardous attitudes and writes standard operating procedures that stress safety. Risk management is the method for breaking the chain of events before an accident happens.
The five hazardous attitudes
Anti-authority: 'Don't tell me.' Antidote: Follow the rules. They are usually right.
Impulsivity: 'Do something quickly.' Antidote: Not so fast. Think first. An order such as fly first, ask questions later is an impulsive attitude.
Invulnerability: 'It won't happen to me.' Antidote: It could happen to me.
Macho: 'I can do it.' Antidote: Taking chances is foolish. This is the attitude of taking risks to impress others.
Resignation: 'What's the use?' Antidote: I am not helpless. I can make a difference.
To fight a hazardous attitude, first notice it, label it as hazardous, and then say the antidote.
Checklists: IMSAFE and PAVE
IMSAFE checks the pilot: Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, Emotion. Stress is not on the list of medical conditions that ground a pilot, but it can still ruin your judgment.
PAVE sorts the risks of a flight into four groups: Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment and External pressures. Weather, terrain and airspace go under environment.
External pressure is the single biggest key to risk management because it can make a pilot ignore every other risk. Examples: the wish to impress someone, the client waiting, and the goal of finishing the job. Set personal minimums and standard operating procedures before the pressure arrives. Probably the two most dangerous words in aviation are 'Watch this!'
Crew resource management and situational awareness
Crew resource management (CRM) is the effective use of all resources: people, equipment and information. For a UAS crew, the people are the remote PIC, the person at the controls, the visual observers and anyone else on the team.
CRM must be built into every phase of the operation, not just the flight itself. The parts are effective team communication, task management and situational awareness.
Brief the crew before the flight. Agree on roles, on how people will talk, and on what each person does if something goes wrong. Speak up when you see a hazard. Watch for task overload and tunnel vision on the screen while the airspace goes unscanned.
Situational awareness means knowing what is happening around you now and what is likely to happen next. Single-pilot resource management uses the same ideas for a person working alone: task management, automation management and good decisions.
Alcohol, drugs and medication
You may not fly within 8 hours after drinking alcohol, while under the influence, or with an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or more. Eight hours is the minimum. A hangover means you are still impaired, and a lot of alcohol can stay in the body more than 16 hours.
You may not fly while using a drug that affects your faculties in a way contrary to safety. Cold and allergy medicines, especially antihistamines and decongestants, can cause drowsiness. The FAA study guide advises waiting at least 48 hours after the first dose of a new medicine, to see whether it has side effects, before flying.
The remote PIC is also responsible for the visual observers and others on the crew. Nobody on the crew may be impaired.
Stress, fatigue, dehydration, heat and hyperventilation
Fatigue is a frequent cause of pilot error. It cuts attention, coordination and decision-making. Acute fatigue is cured by rest, but chronic fatigue is not. Fatigue leaves you in an impaired state, and even an experienced pilot may not notice it. If you are tired, do not fly.
Stress releases hormones, raises heart rate and breathing, and narrows your attention. Acute stress comes from an immediate threat. Chronic stress builds from long-term pressure and makes performance fall sharply.
Hyperventilation is breathing too fast and deep, which blows off too much carbon dioxide. Symptoms include dizziness, tingling, muscle spasms and blurred vision. The cure is to slow your breathing, by breathing normally, talking aloud or breathing into a paper bag.
Dehydration lowers performance. Signs are headache, fatigue, cramps, sleepiness and dizziness. Drink two to four quarts of water a day, and do not wait until you feel thirsty. Heatstroke is the body's loss of temperature control. In hot work, drink about a pint an hour in moderate heat and a quart an hour in severe heat, and take shade breaks.
Vision, scanning and night illusions
Scan the sky in steps: look in blocks about 30 degrees wide, stop for no more than 2 to 3 seconds at each block, and overlap each new block by about 10 degrees. Start at the greatest distance and work in toward the aircraft's position.
Cones in the center of your eye see color and detail but work poorly in dim light. Rods work in the dark and handle your side vision. At night, the center of the field has a blind spot. Look about 5 to 10 degrees off to the side of an object to see it. If you stare at the object more than 2 to 3 seconds it fades, so keep your eyes moving.
Rods need about 30 minutes to adapt fully to the dark. A bright light can destroy that adaptation in a moment. Keep lights low when you prepare the aircraft, and keep bright lights off the flight line. Wearing sunglasses in bright sun beforehand also helps.
At night you also lose some sharpness, color and depth perception, and your judgment of size can drift. Lack of oxygen reduces night vision measurably above about 4,000 feet pressure altitude, so a high site makes it worse.
Two night illusions to know: autokinesis, where a steady light stared at in the dark seems to move, and false horizon, where a dark scene with scattered lights, an obscured horizon or sloping clouds fools you about the true horizon. Use reliable, fixed points on the ground as references, and keep your eyes moving.
Numbers to remember
| Item | Value | Source |
|---|---|---|
| Hours between alcohol and flight | 8 | 14 CFR 91.17(a)(1) |
| Alcohol concentration limit | 0.04 | 14 CFR 91.17(a)(4) |
| Wait after the first dose of a new medicine | at least 48 hours | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 9 |
| Rods fully dark adapted after | about 30 minutes | PHAK Chapter 17 |
| Longest stare during a scan | 2 to 3 seconds | PHAK Chapter 17 |
| Scan block width and overlap | about 30 degrees, overlap about 10 degrees | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 9 |
| Off-center viewing at night | 5 to 10 degrees off the object | PHAK Chapter 17 |
| Daily water | two to four quarts | Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 9 |
| Night vision starts to decline | above about 4,000 feet pressure altitude (without oxygen) | PHAK Chapter 17 |
Knowledge check
Choose an answer before reading the answer key.
A manager tells a remote pilot to fly first and ask questions later. Which hazardous attitude is that?
- Machismo
- Invulnerability
- Impulsivity
When adapting crew resource management to a small UAS operation, CRM must be built into
- the flight portion only.
- all phases of the operation.
- the communications only.
When preparing for a night flight, about how long do the eyes need to adapt fully to the dark?
- About 5 minutes
- About 30 minutes
- About 2 hours
In the PAVE checklist, which letter covers pressure to complete the job on time?
- P
- V
- E
A pilot breathes fast, feels dizzy and has tingling hands after a scare. What is the best action?
- Slow the breathing rate, for example by breathing normally or talking aloud.
- Breathe faster to get more oxygen.
- Climb to a higher altitude.
Answer key
- C. Impulsivity. Acting without thinking first is impulsivity. The antidote is: not so fast, think first. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 10; UAG sample questions
- B. all phases of the operation.. CRM applies to planning, briefing, flying and the debrief, not just the flight itself. UAG sample questions; Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 10
- B. About 30 minutes. The rods need about 30 minutes to adapt fully, and a bright light can destroy the adaptation. PHAK Chapter 17
- C. E. E is External pressures. The FAA calls their management the single most important key to risk management. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 10
- A. Slow the breathing rate, for example by breathing normally or talking aloud.. These are signs of hyperventilation. Slowing the breathing rate restores the carbon dioxide level. Remote Pilot Study Guide, Chapter 9
Official reading
Test-day checklist
- ☐ Bring a government-issued photo ID. It must show your photo, signature, date of birth and permanent mailing address.
- ☐ Have your FAA Tracking Number (FTN) from IACRA ready before you arrive. Arrive early.
- ☐ Leave notes and books at home. The testing center gives you the supplement book with the figures.
- ☐ A simple calculator is allowed. Written or electronic notes are not.
- ☐ You have 2 hours for 60 questions, which is about 2 minutes per question. Answer every question, mark the hard ones, and come back if you have time.
- ☐ For chart questions, find the figure and area the question names, then read the symbol, the line style and the numbers before you look at the choices.
- ☐ Keep your test report. You need the 17-digit exam ID to finish your application in IACRA.
After the knowledge test
- Finish Form 8710-13 in IACRA with your exam ID. Watch for the TSA email that lets you print a temporary certificate. A temporary certificate is good for up to 120 calendar days.
- Carry your remote pilot certificate and a photo ID every time you fly.
- Register each drone you fly under Part 107 in FAADroneZone, put the registration number on the outside of the aircraft, and list each Remote ID serial number.
- Set a reminder for your recurrent training. It is free on FAASafety.gov and due within 24 calendar months of your last test or training.
- Install a LAANC app from an FAA-approved UAS Service Supplier before you need it.
- Report a new address to the FAA within 30 days.
- Apply for a waiver if your work needs something Part 107 does not allow. Check state and local laws too, because they can apply as well.
Practice what you learned
Aha Trivia turns the subject into short, scored questions. The guide and game are study tools, not official training or certification.
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