Study guides ยท Stuff Every IT Tech Should Know

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Stuff Every IT Tech Should Know: Training Guide

This guide teaches the core hardware, networking, Windows, security and cloud facts from the card deck. It prepares a beginner to study for the CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2 exams.

Who this is for: Curious adults who are new to IT support and preparing for the CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2 exams. It also helps beginners who work with Windows, macOS, Linux, networks and common devices.

Study aid, not authority. This guide is not an official course, a certificate or a license. This guide is not an official CompTIA course. It teaches facts from the card sources only. For safety, legal and money topics, ask a qualified professional when a real risk is involved.

Written by Aha Trivia from 100 checked cards and 91 sources. Checked 2026-10-25.

โ–ถ Practice in Aha Trivia About this deck

Key facts

CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam
Passing score 675, maximum 90 questions, 90 minute time limit CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) V15 Exam Objectives
Windows 11 TPM
Requires TPM 2.0, UEFI and Secure Boot capable firmware Windows 11 requirements, Microsoft Learn
Windows 10 support end
October 14, 2025 Windows 10 support has ended, Microsoft Support
Common ports
SSH 22, SMTP 25, POP3 110, IMAP 143, DNS 53, DHCP 67, SMB 445, RDP 3389, NTP 123 IANA Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry CSV
IPv6 address size
128 bits RFC 8200
USB4 top speed
80 Gbps USB4, USB Implementers Forum

Study plan

  1. Week 1: Build a foundation in network protocols and common ports.
    Lessons: Network Protocols and Common Ports
  2. Week 2: Learn IP addressing, DNS, DHCP and network troubleshooting commands.
    Lessons: IP Addressing, DNS, DHCP and Network Repairs
  3. Week 3: Study Windows 11 requirements, security and administration.
    Lessons: Windows Operating System and Administration
  4. Week 4: Learn storage, backups and cross-platform tools.
    Lessons: Storage, Backups and Cross-Platform Tools
  5. Week 5: Understand security threats, safety and incident response.
    Lessons: Security, Threats and Safety Practices
  6. Week 6: Review cloud, virtualization, hardware specs and the A+ exam structure.
    Lessons: Cloud, Virtualization, Hardware and the A+ Exam

Lesson 1 of 6

Network Protocols and Common Ports

Learn how network services use ports and how TCP and UDP move data.

What you will learn

  • Explain why services use port numbers
  • Name the default ports for common remote access, mail and name services
  • Compare TCP's reliable stream with UDP's lightweight datagrams

Port basics and remote access

A port is a number that helps a computer send traffic to the right service. The IANA registry keeps the official assignments, and techs use the common ones every day. Secure Shell (SSH) uses TCP port 22, while Telnet uses 23 and Remote Desktop uses 3389. These are all remote access tools, so it is easy to mix them up.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) lets you control a Windows computer from another machine. It listens on port 3389 by default. File sharing between Windows computers uses Server Message Block (SMB) on port 445, so file access and remote control use different ports.

Network Time Protocol (NTP) keeps clocks in sync and uses port 123. DNS uses port 53, not 123, so keep the two services apart.

Email and DNS services

SMTP is the protocol for sending and relaying email, and it uses port 25. POP3 and IMAP are for retrieving or reading mail, not sending. POP3 uses port 110 and IMAP uses 143. Remembering who sends versus who reads prevents mix-ups.

POP3 pulls mail down to your device using port 110, while IMAP is designed for reading mail that stays on the server and uses port 143.

DNS answers name lookups on port 53, over both UDP and TCP. It turns a name like example.com into an address. Port 67 belongs to the DHCP server, not DNS, so do not confuse the two.

Windows file sharing and network services

DHCP servers listen on port 67. DHCP clients use port 68. This old Bootstrap Protocol pairing assigns addresses automatically, and techs should know both ends.

SMB is the protocol Windows uses for file sharing, and it runs on port 445. The same exam list also names older NetBIOS ports 137 to 139, but modern SMB uses 445.

RDP uses port 3389, SSH uses 22 and SMB uses 445. These three are on the A+ Core 1 port list, so they are worth memorizing as a set.

TCP and UDP

TCP sets up a connection with a three-way handshake. Because steps two and three can be combined in one message, it is called a three-way handshake. After setup, TCP provides a reliable, in-order, byte-stream service.

UDP is transaction oriented and does not guarantee delivery or duplicate protection. That makes it light and fast, which suits live voice and DNS lookups. Use TCP when you need reliable delivery.

Port numbers apply to both TCP and UDP, but a service often uses one or both. The IANA registry lists SSH on port 22 for TCP, UDP and SCTP. Knowing the transport helps when you read packet captures.

Numbers to remember

ItemValueSource
SSH default port22IANA Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry CSV
SMTP default port25IANA Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry CSV
POP3 default port110IANA Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry CSV
IMAP default port143RFC 9051: Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) - Version 4rev2, IETF
DNS port53IANA Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry CSV
DHCP server port67IANA Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry CSV

Knowledge check

Choose an answer before reading the answer key.

  1. A user needs secure command line access to a remote Linux server. Which default port should the firewall allow?

    1. 22
    2. 25
    3. 3389
    4. 110
  2. Which port should be open on a mail server so it can send outgoing mail?

    1. 25
    2. 143
    3. 110
    4. 445
  3. A mail client keeps messages on the server so a user can read them from multiple devices. Which protocol and port are typical?

    1. RDP on 3389
    2. SMTP on 25
    3. POP3 on 110
    4. IMAP on 143
  4. Which connection type offers reliable, in-order delivery after a three-way handshake?

    1. DNS
    2. UDP
    3. DHCP
    4. TCP
  5. A Windows PC shares a folder with another Windows PC. Which port does SMB use?

    1. 67
    2. 123
    3. 3389
    4. 445

Answer key

  1. A. 22. SSH uses port 22 by default. IANA Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry CSV
  2. A. 25. SMTP uses port 25 to send and relay email. IANA Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry CSV
  3. D. IMAP on 143. IMAP uses 143 and is designed for server-based mail reading. RFC 9051: Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) - Version 4rev2, IETF
  4. D. TCP. TCP uses the three-way handshake and provides reliable byte-stream service. RFC 9293
  5. D. 445. SMB file sharing uses port 445. IANA Service Name and Transport Protocol Port Number Registry CSV

Sources for this lesson

Lesson 2 of 6

IP Addressing, DNS, DHCP and Network Repairs

Learn how devices get addresses, how DNS records work and how to inspect a network path.

What you will learn

  • Describe private IPv4 ranges and APIPA
  • Identify common DNS record types
  • Explain the four DHCP messages and reservations
  • Use Windows network commands to find problems

IPv4 and IPv6 addresses

RFC 1918 reserves three private IPv4 blocks: 10/8, 172.16/12 and 192.168/16. The 172 block stops at 172.31.255.255, and the 192 block must be 192.168.x.x. These addresses are for private networks and do not route on the public internet.

When a PC cannot reach a DHCP server, it can give itself an address in the 169.254.x.x range. Windows calls this APIPA, and it only allows talking to neighbors on the same link. This is a sign that DHCP failed.

IPv6 increases the address size from 32 bits to 128 bits. The larger size supports more levels of addressing hierarchy and far more addresses. A full IPv6 address is much longer than an IPv4 address.

DNS records and email policies

An A record maps a name to an IPv4 address, and an AAAA record maps a name to an IPv6 address. Because IPv6 addresses are four times as long, the AAAA name is a memory hint.

An MX record tells other servers where to deliver email for a domain. A CNAME makes one name an alias for another, such as www.example.com pointing to example.com. These two record types are used for different jobs.

A TXT record can hold text such as SPF policy. SPF tells receivers which servers may send mail for the domain, helping fight spoofed email. DMARC works with SPF and DKIM and publishes domain-level policies for handling suspicious email.

DHCP and wireless services

When a device needs an address, it first broadcasts a DHCPDISCOVER message to locate servers. A server answers with DHCPOFFER, the client asks with DHCPREQUEST, and the server confirms with DHCPACK.

A DHCP reservation ties an IP address to one specific client, so that device always gets the same address. An exclusion keeps addresses out of the pool, and a lease is the time an address may be used.

Wi-Fi 7 adds 320 MHz wide channels in the 6 GHz band, which provide twice the throughput of Wi-Fi 6. The older 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands are not where these very wide channels live.

The early 802.11a standard defined a higher speed physical layer in the 5 GHz band. IEEE titles 802.11b and 802.11g in the 2.4 GHz band. So 802.11a is the one to remember for 5 GHz.

Network commands and call quality

In Microsoft Teams, high jitter makes a speaker's voice sound robotic. Jitter is the average change in delay between successive packets. Microsoft flags average jitter above 30 ms as poor audio quality.

ipconfig /flushdns clears the Windows DNS client resolver cache. If a cached DNS answer is wrong or stale, flushing forces the next lookup to ask the DNS server again.

tracert shows each router hop on the path to a destination. pathping adds latency and packet loss information per hop, so it helps find which router is losing packets or adding delay.

netstat -o adds the process ID, or PID, to each active connection. With the PID you can look up which application opened a suspicious connection in Task Manager. netstat -a shows all active connections and listening ports.

nslookup lets you query DNS servers directly. If a name fails to resolve here, DNS is a likely culprit, and you can use the help subcommand inside nslookup to see options.

Numbers to remember

ItemValueSource
IPv6 address bits128RFC 8200
APIPA prefix169.254/16RFC 3927
Teams poor jitter thresholdabove 30 msUse CQD to manage call and meeting quality in Microsoft Teams, Microsoft Learn
Wi-Fi 7 channel width320 MHz in 6 GHzWi-Fi 7 for Gaming, Intel
tracert default hop limit30 hopstracert command reference, Microsoft Learn
pathping default delay250 mspathping command reference, Microsoft Learn

Knowledge check

Choose an answer before reading the answer key.

  1. A computer has no internet but can talk to nearby devices. Its IP starts with 169.254. What likely happened?

    1. DHCP discovery failed
    2. IPv6 is disabled
    3. The gateway is wrong
    4. DNS is misconfigured
  2. Which record should you create so mail servers know where to send mail for mydomain.com?

    1. CNAME
    2. MX
    3. AAAA
    4. TXT
  3. A user can reach a website by IP but not by name. Which tool is the best first choice to ask a DNS server for the name?

    1. ipconfig /flushdns
    2. netstat -o
    3. nslookup
    4. tracert
  4. Which command gives both latency and packet loss for each router along a path?

    1. netstat -a
    2. ipconfig /release
    3. tracert
    4. pathping
  5. A Wi-Fi 7 access point can use 320 MHz wide channels in which band?

    1. 6 GHz
    2. 60 GHz
    3. 2.4 GHz
    4. 5 GHz

Answer key

  1. A. DHCP discovery failed. APIPA self-assignment uses 169.254 when no DHCP answer arrives. RFC 3927
  2. B. MX. MX tells other servers where to deliver email for the domain. RFC 1035
  3. C. nslookup. nslookup queries DNS servers directly to diagnose name resolution. nslookup command reference, Microsoft Learn
  4. D. pathping. pathping reports latency and network loss at intermediate hops. pathping command reference, Microsoft Learn
  5. A. 6 GHz. Wi-Fi 7 uses 320 MHz channels in the 6 GHz band. Wi-Fi 7 for Gaming, Intel

Sources for this lesson

Lesson 3 of 6

Windows Operating System and Administration

Learn Windows 11 requirements, security features, core commands and recovery tools.

What you will learn

  • Describe Windows 11 TPM, UEFI and disk requirements
  • Use core Windows commands and MMC tools
  • Explain BitLocker, EFS, UAC and Windows Hello
  • Choose recovery tools for common failures

Windows 11 requirements and lifecycle

Windows 11 requires Trusted Platform Module version 2.0. The firmware must also be UEFI and Secure Boot capable. TPM 1.2 does not meet the requirement.

Windows 11 also requires at least 4 GB of memory and 64 GB of storage. These minimums appear together with the TPM and UEFI requirements in Microsoft's published list.

Windows 10 reached end of support on October 14, 2025. After that, Microsoft stopped free technical assistance, feature updates and security updates. Only devices in Extended Security Updates still get security fixes.

GUID Partition Table, or GPT, was introduced as part of the UEFI initiative. It is more flexible than the older MBR partition scheme, though Windows limits a GPT disk to 128 partitions.

Windows security features

User Account Control prompts the user to approve or deny a change that needs administrator permission. This limits what malicious code can do silently. UAC is on by default.

BitLocker encrypts an entire drive volume and works best with a TPM. The operating system drive must be formatted with NTFS. A separate unencrypted system drive holds boot files.

BitLocker To Go protects removable drives like USB flash drives, SD cards and external disks. A password or smart card unlocks the drive, even on another computer. It can encrypt NTFS, FAT16, FAT32 or exFAT.

Encrypting File System, or EFS, encrypts individual files and folders on NTFS volumes. Unlike BitLocker, it works at the file level, not the whole volume. It helps if a laptop with sensitive files is lost or stolen.

Windows Hello lets you sign in with biometric data or a PIN instead of a password. It is phish-resistant and can also sign you in to supported websites with FIDO or WebAuthn.

Windows Home editions cannot act as Remote Desktop hosts for incoming connections. Pro, Enterprise, Education and Server editions can host incoming Remote Desktop. Home can still be used as a client to connect to other systems.

Core commands and MMC tools

sfc /scannow scans protected system files and repairs damaged ones. You must be an administrator. sfc /verifyonly scans without making repairs.

chkdsk checks a volume for logical and physical file system errors. It is different from sfc, which checks operating system files rather than disk structure.

gpupdate applies new or changed Group Policy settings right away. Add /force to reapply every setting. gpresult /r shows which policies actually applied to a user and computer.

robocopy /mir mirrors a directory tree, copying files and purging extras at the destination. Because it deletes files that do not exist at the source, use it carefully.

eventvwr.msc opens Event Viewer to read system and application logs. lusrmgr.msc opens Local Users and Groups to manage local accounts and groups on a single PC.

PowerShell execution policy controls when PowerShell loads configuration files and runs scripts. On Windows clients the effective default policy is Restricted, which allows single commands but no scripts.

Recovery and system state

System Restore reverts system settings to a previous point in time. It can undo a bad driver or software change without affecting personal files. Windows can create restore points automatically during big events like software installs or updates.

Safe Mode starts Windows with a limited set of files and drivers. If a problem does not happen in safe mode, default settings and basic drivers are not the cause. Safe Mode with Networking adds network drivers and services.

Windows shows a blue screen stop error when it detects a condition that compromises safe operation. It halts rather than risk damage. On preview releases the stop screen can be green.

Numbers to remember

ItemValueSource
Windows 11 TPM version2.0Windows 11 requirements, Microsoft Learn
Windows 11 minimum memory4 GBWindows 11 requirements, Microsoft Learn
Windows 11 minimum storage64 GBWindows 11 requirements, Microsoft Learn
Windows 10 end of supportOctober 14, 2025Windows 10 support has ended, Microsoft Support
GPT partition limit in Windows128 partitionsWindows and GPT FAQ, Microsoft Learn

Knowledge check

Choose an answer before reading the answer key.

  1. Which combination is required for a new Windows 11 install?

    1. TPM 2.0, UEFI, Secure Boot capable
    2. TPM 1.2, UEFI, no Secure Boot
    3. TPM 1.2, MBR, Secure Boot
    4. TPM 2.0, BIOS, no Secure Boot
  2. A user needs to protect an entire laptop drive so a thief cannot read data without the key. Which feature should be enabled?

    1. Windows Hello
    2. EFS
    3. BitLocker
    4. UAC
  3. Which tool shows which Group Policy settings actually applied to a user and computer?

    1. gpresult /r
    2. eventvwr.msc
    3. gpupdate /force
    4. lusrmgr.msc
  4. A user suspects a third-party startup item is causing a crash. Which boot option is best to test with a minimal driver set?

    1. Startup Repair
    2. Safe Mode
    3. System Restore
    4. Reset this PC
  5. What does a blue screen stop error usually mean?

    1. A normal shutdown is in progress
    2. Windows detected a condition that compromises safe operation
    3. The user pressed a wrong key
    4. Windows needs an update

Answer key

  1. A. TPM 2.0, UEFI, Secure Boot capable. Windows 11 requires TPM 2.0 and UEFI firmware with Secure Boot capability. Windows 11 requirements, Microsoft Learn
  2. C. BitLocker. BitLocker encrypts entire volumes and works with a TPM. BitLocker overview, Microsoft Learn
  3. A. gpresult /r. gpresult reports the resultant set of policy, and /r gives a summary. gpresult command reference, Microsoft Learn
  4. B. Safe Mode. Safe Mode starts with a limited set of files and drivers to isolate causes. Start your PC in safe mode, Microsoft Support
  5. B. Windows detected a condition that compromises safe operation. Windows halts because continuing could compromise safety or corrupt data. Troubleshoot stop errors, Microsoft Learn

Sources for this lesson

Lesson 4 of 6

Storage, Backups and Cross-Platform Tools

Learn RAID levels, drive health, macOS backup tools and Linux file system basics.

What you will learn

  • Compare RAID 0, 1 and 6
  • Explain NVMe and S.M.A.R.T. drive health
  • Use macOS Time Machine, FileVault and Disk Utility
  • Recognize Linux permission, space and filesystem commands

RAID and storage interfaces

RAID 1 mirrors data by writing identical data to each member disk. If one drive fails, the array can keep running on a surviving disk. Red Hat says RAID 1 offers the highest redundancy of all RAID types.

RAID 0 stripes data for speed but provides no redundancy. High I/O speed at low cost is the goal, but one failed drive loses the array. RAID 0 is performance only.

RAID 6 uses a parity scheme that can recover from the loss of any two drives in the array. RAID 5 spreads parity across drives but is built to survive one failure, and RAID 0 has no redundancy at all.

NVMe solid-state drives talk to the computer over PCI Express, or PCIe. NVMe was designed for fast flash storage with high bandwidth and low latency, unlike older SATA drives.

S.M.A.R.T. stands for Self-Monitoring, Analysis and Reporting Technology. It watches drive health and warns before a failure. If a drive health check warns the disk is about to fail, back up the data right away.

macOS backup and storage

Time Machine automatically backs up a Mac to an external drive and keeps hourly, daily and weekly backups. It needs a storage device set up as the backup disk. Time Machine also saves local snapshots.

FileVault encrypts the startup disk so a thief cannot decrypt or access data without entering the login password. Keep the recovery key somewhere other than with the Mac.

Disk Utility's First Aid feature checks and repairs a Mac volume. Run First Aid on each volume and container, then on the storage device itself. If it says the disk is about to fail, back up and replace it.

APFS is the default file system for Mac computers using macOS 10.13 or later. It is designed for flash and SSD storage and adds encryption, space sharing and snapshots.

To force quit an unresponsive Mac app, choose Apple menu, then Force Quit, select the app and click Force Quit. You may lose unsaved changes. The keyboard shortcut Option-Command-Esc also opens the Force Quit window.

Spotlight search opens with Command-Space bar. It quickly finds apps, files, emails and messages. Mission Control lets you create extra desktops called Spaces to organize windows.

Linux file and command essentials

chmod changes a file's permission bits, which control who can read, write and run it. chown changes the file's owner and group instead. chmod accepts either a symbolic mode or an octal number.

df reports free and used space on mounted file systems. du estimates the space used by files and directories. If no file name is given to df, it shows space on all mounted file systems.

The /etc/shadow file contains password information and optional aging information for Linux accounts. It must not be readable by regular users if password security is to be maintained.

The /etc/fstab file describes the filesystems the system can mount. Order matters because fsck, mount and umount read the file in sequence. Each filesystem gets its own line.

sudo lets a permitted user run a command as the superuser or another user. It checks a security policy to decide who may run which commands. Using it only when needed keeps everyday work in a normal account.

fsck checks and optionally repairs a Linux filesystem. It can take a device name, a mount point, or a label. fsck normally checks filesystems on different physical disks in parallel to save time.

Numbers to remember

ItemValueSource
RAID 6 recoverable drive failuresany two drivesRed Hat Enterprise Linux 9: Managing RAID
NVMe interfacePCI ExpressAbout NVM Express
APFS default sincemacOS 10.13 or laterFile system formats in Disk Utility, Apple Support
Force Quit shortcutOption-Command-EscMac keyboard shortcuts, Apple Support
Spotlight shortcutCommand-Space barSearch with Spotlight on Mac, Apple Support

Knowledge check

Choose an answer before reading the answer key.

  1. Which RAID level writes identical data to every member disk and can survive a single drive loss?

    1. RAID 6
    2. RAID 1
    3. RAID 5
    4. RAID 0
  2. A drive health utility shows a S.M.A.R.T. failure. What should you do first?

    1. Reboot the computer
    2. Back up the data right away
    3. Reinstall the operating system
    4. Run chkdsk
  3. Which macOS feature automatically keeps hourly, daily and weekly backups to an external drive?

    1. APFS
    2. FileVault
    3. First Aid
    4. Time Machine
  4. A Linux user needs to know which mounted file system is nearly full. Which command shows free and used space?

    1. df
    2. fsck
    3. du
    4. chmod
  5. Which file stores Linux password information and must not be readable by regular users?

    1. /etc/resolv.conf
    2. /etc/fstab
    3. /etc/hosts
    4. /etc/shadow

Answer key

  1. B. RAID 1. RAID 1 mirrors identical data to each member disk. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 9: Managing RAID
  2. B. Back up the data right away. When a drive is about to fail, back up data immediately and replace the disk. Repair a storage device in Disk Utility on Mac, Apple Support
  3. D. Time Machine. Time Machine automatically backs up a Mac and keeps those schedules. Back up your files with Time Machine, Apple Support
  4. A. df. df reports file system space usage on mounted file systems. df(1), Debian manpages
  5. D. /etc/shadow. The shadow file contains password information and should be protected. shadow(5), Debian manpages

Sources for this lesson

Lesson 5 of 6

Security, Threats and Safety Practices

Learn phishing signs, authentication factors, malware types, network attacks and safe device handling.

What you will learn

  • Spot phishing messages and social pressure
  • Explain authentication factors and least privilege
  • Describe rootkits, trojans, DDoS and Wi-Fi security
  • Handle batteries and evidence safely

Phishing and authentication

A common phishing warning sign is an urgent demand to act now or face a penalty. Phishers rush you into clicking, paying or sharing information. If the message looks like it comes from a real company, contact the company using a number or site you already know.

A hardware security key is an example of the authentication factor 'something you have'. Multi-factor authentication combines different factor types: something you know, have or are. A PIN or password is something you know, and a biometric is something you are.

Least privilege means users should get only the minimum access needed to do their job. It reduces damage from mistakes or stolen accounts. NIST also applies least privilege to processes acting on behalf of users.

On a personal BYOD phone, mobile application management, or MAM, manages only the work apps and their data, not the rest of the phone. It is typical for personal devices. Full device MDM manages the whole device instead.

Face ID with a single enrolled appearance has a false match rate of less than 1 in 1,000,000, according to Apple. It also allows only five unsuccessful match attempts before a passcode is required.

Malware and network attacks

A rootkit changes normal host functions in a hidden way. It often gives an attacker secret control at the most privileged level, and because it hides so well, the recommended fix can be reinstalling the operating system.

A Trojan appears to be useful software but hides a malicious function. It tricks users into running it. Trojans can evade security by exploiting the legitimate authorizations of the user running them.

A denial-of-service attack prevents authorized access or delays time-critical work. A distributed denial-of-service, or DDoS, uses many hosts to perform the attack at once, so blocking one address does not help.

WPA3-Personal gives stronger protection against password guessing attempts on home networks. WEP and WPA2 with TKIP are older, weaker options. WPA3 is required for all Wi-Fi CERTIFIED devices.

Device and physical safety

Before opening a PC to repair it, disconnect power. This lowers the chance of electric shock and damage to components. ESD straps, ESD mats and antistatic bags prevent electrostatic discharge.

A laptop battery that is swollen should not be used. Stop using it and replace it. Dell says to discontinue use and let a swollen battery drain by unplugging the AC adapter, then replace and dispose of it properly.

A worn-out lithium-ion laptop battery should go to a battery recycler or hazardous waste site, never in household garbage or recycling bins. Tape the terminals or place batteries in separate plastic bags.

A rollback plan describes how to undo a change if it fails. It is part of change management, along with scope, risk analysis and change board approvals.

Incident response and evidence

Chain of custody documents every person who handled evidence, with date and time. It tracks the movement of evidence from collection to analysis, recording why it moved. This is important in incident response and forensics.

When a disk utility warns the disk is about to fail, back up the data and replace the disk. This connects to S.M.A.R.T. warnings, which also signal impending failure. The first priority is preserving data.

Do not use a damaged battery and do not place it in normal garbage. These habits reduce fire risk. Ask a qualified professional or recycler when handling large or damaged batteries.

Numbers to remember

ItemValueSource
Face ID random match chanceless than 1 in 1,000,000About Face ID advanced technology, Apple Support
Face ID unsuccessful attempts before passcode5About Face ID advanced technology, Apple Support
WPA3 requirementrequired for Wi-Fi CERTIFIED devicesWi-Fi Alliance introduces Wi-Fi CERTIFIED WPA3 security

Knowledge check

Choose an answer before reading the answer key.

  1. An email says you must click a link in the next hour to avoid losing your account. What is the best first action?

    1. Reply with your password
    2. Contact the company through a known number or site
    3. Click the link and log in
    4. Forward it to all coworkers
  2. Which authentication factor does a hardware security key provide?

    1. Something you type
    2. Something you have
    3. Something you are
    4. Something you know
  3. Which principle gives users only the access needed for assigned tasks?

    1. Rollback plan
    2. Defense in depth
    3. Chain of custody
    4. Least privilege
  4. Why is a DDoS attack harder to stop than a simple DoS?

    1. It uses a stronger password
    2. It encrypts files
    3. It uses many hosts at once
    4. It hides in the kernel
  5. Which Wi-Fi security standard is strongest against password guessing on a home network?

    1. WPA2 with TKIP
    2. WPA3
    3. WEP
    4. Open network

Answer key

  1. B. Contact the company through a known number or site. Urgent demands are a phishing sign, and you should verify through a trusted channel. Protect yourself from phishing, Microsoft Support
  2. B. Something you have. A key or token you hold is something you have. Multi-factor authentication, NIST CSRC glossary
  3. D. Least privilege. Least privilege restricts access to the minimum necessary. Least privilege, NIST CSRC glossary
  4. C. It uses many hosts at once. A DDoS uses numerous hosts, so blocking one address is not enough. Distributed denial of service, NIST CSRC glossary
  5. B. WPA3. WPA3-Personal provides stronger protection against password guessing attempts. Wi-Fi Alliance introduces Wi-Fi CERTIFIED WPA3 security

Sources for this lesson

Lesson 6 of 6

Cloud, Virtualization, Hardware and the A+ Exam

Learn cloud models, virtualization, hardware specs and the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam structure.

What you will learn

  • Describe NIST cloud characteristics and service models
  • Compare hypervisors and containers
  • Recall key USB, Thunderbolt and memory specs
  • State A+ passing score, domains and troubleshooting method

Cloud service models

Rapid elasticity means cloud capacity can scale out and back in as demand changes. NIST lists it as one of five essential characteristics. Resource pooling is about sharing, and measured service is about metering.

SaaS lets you use a provider's application, such as web-based email, running on their cloud. You do not manage servers or the operating system. IaaS and PaaS hand you more of the stack.

IaaS gives you virtual processing, storage and networks so you can run your own operating systems. The provider still controls the underlying infrastructure.

Containers on one host all share the host's kernel. A virtual machine runs a complete operating system with its own kernel. Containers are lighter but offer less isolation than VMs.

Virtualization

A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the hardware with no host OS. This is also called bare metal virtualization. A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of a host OS, which NIST calls hosted virtualization.

A bare metal hypervisor can even be built into the computer's firmware. Type 2 hypervisors run like an application on a regular operating system.

Because containers share the kernel, they are isolated processes but not separate machines. Microsoft says VMs provide stronger isolation, while containers give lightweight isolation. Use VMs when you need full OS separation.

Hardware and peripherals

Micron lists DDR5 memory data rates starting at 4800 MT/s and reaching as high as 8800 MT/s. DDR4 runs from 600 to 3200 MT/s. DDR5 also runs at 1.1 volts compared with 1.2 volts for DDR4.

Micron lists on-die ECC as a new DDR5 chip feature, while DDR4 has none. On-die ECC checks and scrubs errors inside the chip to strengthen reliability.

USB 3.2 identifies three transfer rates: 5, 10 and 20 Gbps. The 20 Gbps rate uses two lanes of 10 Gbps. USB4 can reach 80 Gbps over 80 Gbps certified cables that use USB Type-C.

Intel lists Thunderbolt 4 minimum required bandwidth at 40 Gbps. Thunderbolt 5 doubles that minimum to 80 Gbps. Thunderbolt 4 uses the USB Type-C connector.

In a laser printer, the fuser bonds the toner to the paper with heat and pressure. Before that, the drum transfers toner to paper after an image is projected onto the drum.

An eSIM is a digital SIM activated without a physical card. It lets you activate a carrier plan without waiting for a card or swapping cards. Android Help says Mac computers cannot tether with Android over a USB cable, though Wi-Fi and Bluetooth tethering still work.

A+ exam and structured troubleshooting

The CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam, code 220-1201, has a passing score of 675 on a scale from 100 to 900. It has a maximum of 90 questions and a 90 minute time limit.

Hardware and Network Troubleshooting is the largest Core 1 domain at 28 percent. Hardware is 25 percent and Networking is 23 percent. Virtualization and Cloud Computing is the smallest at 11 percent.

CompTIA's troubleshooting methodology starts with identifying the problem. Next come a theory of probable cause, testing the theory, a plan of action, verifying functionality and documenting findings.

The A+ Core 1 exam includes multiple-choice and performance-based questions. Studying the exact objectives helps you know which tasks to practice in a lab.

Numbers to remember

ItemValueSource
Core 1 passing score675CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) V15 Exam Objectives
Core 1 maximum questions90CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) V15 Exam Objectives
Core 1 time limit90 minutesCompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) V15 Exam Objectives
Largest Core 1 domain share28 percentCompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) V15 Exam Objectives
USB4 top speed80 GbpsUSB4, USB Implementers Forum
Thunderbolt 4 minimum bandwidth40 GbpsThunderbolt technology overview, Intel

Knowledge check

Choose an answer before reading the answer key.

  1. A company wants to use a provider's web-based email app without managing servers. Which cloud model is this?

    1. On-premises
    2. IaaS
    3. PaaS
    4. SaaS
  2. Which hypervisor type runs directly on hardware with no host OS?

    1. Application sandbox
    2. Type 2 hosted
    3. Container engine
    4. Type 1 bare metal
  3. What is the minimum required bandwidth for Thunderbolt 4?

    1. 10 Gbps
    2. 80 Gbps
    3. 40 Gbps
    4. 20 Gbps
  4. A user sees DDR5 memory with on-die ECC. What does this chip feature do?

    1. Checks and scrubs errors inside the chip
    2. Replaces system RAM
    3. Encrypts the memory bus
    4. Doubles the clock speed
  5. Which step comes first in CompTIA's troubleshooting methodology?

    1. Document findings
    2. Plan the action
    3. Test the theory
    4. Identify the problem

Answer key

  1. D. SaaS. SaaS is a provider's application used through a browser or thin client. NIST SP 800-145, The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing
  2. D. Type 1 bare metal. A Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the hardware with no host OS. NIST SP 800-125, Guide to Security for Full Virtualization Technologies
  3. C. 40 Gbps. Intel lists 40 Gbps as the minimum required bandwidth for Thunderbolt 4. Thunderbolt technology overview, Intel
  4. A. Checks and scrubs errors inside the chip. On-die ECC checks and scrubs errors inside the DDR5 chip. DDR5 DRAM, Micron Technology
  5. D. Identify the problem. The methodology starts with identifying the problem. CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) V15 Exam Objectives

Sources for this lesson

Practice checklist

  • โ˜ Review the common ports and protocols list twice.
  • โ˜ Run the Windows network commands in a practice lab and explain each output.
  • โ˜ Identify the cloud model and hypervisor type for a given scenario.
  • โ˜ Check the CompTIA Core 1 objectives for any gaps.
  • โ˜ Explain the troubleshooting methodology step by step to a friend.

Keep learning

  • Book the CompTIA A+ Core 1 exam when practice scores are stable.
  • Set up a home lab with Windows, Linux and a network switch to practice.
  • Review missed quiz questions and reread the related lesson.
  • Practice command line tasks until they feel automatic.
  • Read the official CompTIA objectives and know each bullet.

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Practice what you learned

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